Quantum Windbag
Gold Member
- May 9, 2010
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ONE of the main objections to the "targeted killing" tactic is that it vests too much power in the hands of the President (or his designee).
There is a demand for "due process." It is argued that the killing of an American citizen by resort to this tactic is somehow unConstitutional.
As food for thought, I wonder if it makes any difference if we stop and consider that the AUMF seems to specifically authorize the President's decision in this case?
Section 1 - Short Title
This joint resolution may be cited as the 'Authorization for Use of Military Force'.
Section 2 - Authorization For Use of United States Armed Forces
(a) IN GENERAL- That the President is authorized to use all necessary and appropriate force against those nations, organizations, or persons he determines planned, authorized, committed, or aided the terrorist attacks that occurred on September 11, 2001, or harbored such organizations or persons, in order to prevent any future acts of international terrorism against the United States by such nations, organizations or persons.
That makes it all right. We have an unconstitutionally vague law authorizing the president to commit criminal acts.