ThoughtCrimes
Old Navy Vet
Your citation is irrelevant to what is being discussed. We're talking about who defines marriage, the State or the Federal government. The Windsor ruling was ridiculously clear that it was the States:First off, the case would be United States v. Windsor. Secondly, SCOTUS found DOMA unconstitutional and violative of the Equal Protection Clause of Amendment V.The fed is marriage now. States no longer have a say. If they can't determine at minimum requirements a mother and father, then they're out of the game completely.
Says who?
You may want to read the Windsor v. US decision. Subject to constitutional guarantees, the State defines marriage.
Subject to certain constitutional guarantees, see , e.g., Loving v. Virginia , 388 U. S. 1, “regulation of domestic relations” is “an area that has long been regarded as a virtually exclusive province of the States,” Sosna v. Iowa , 419 U. S. 393, 404.
Windsor v. US
With the courts making it just as clear that what the meant by 'regulation of domestic relations', was marriage.
The significance of state responsibilities for the definition and regulation of marriage dates to the Nation’s beginning; for “when the Constitution was adopted the common understanding was that the domestic relations of husband and wife and parent and child were matters reserved to the States,” Ohio ex rel. Popovici v. Agler, 280 U. S. 379, 383–384.
Windsor v. US
Demonstrating that your comments are gloriously irrelevant to what we're discussing. And of course, that I was obviously correct.
Following US v. Windsor, SCOTUS found bans on same sex marriage unconstitutional in all States violative of the
Says who?
You may want to read the Windsor v. US decision. Subject to constitutional guarantees, the State defines marriage.
Your claim is in error.
You're confused. We're not speaking of the basis of the Windsor ruling. We're speaking of the Windsor ruling's recognition that the States regulate marriage. Not the Federal government.
None of which your comments have the slightest relevance to. Your mistake would be akin to replying that I'm wrong that the Toyota Camry comes in white because it has a 4 cylinder engine.
The two really have nothing to do with each other. Nor does one disprove the other. Much like your babble about the equal protection clause has nothing to do with whether it is the state or the federal government that defines and regulates marriage.
Your post #41 to which I responded:
"Says who?
You may want to read the Windsor v. US decision. Subject to constitutional guarantees, the State defines marriage."
What you wrote revolved around your declarative implication that US v. Windsor returned full power to define marriage to the States by striking down DOMA. I fully understood that, but noted your error in that your declaration had been UNDERMINED by Obergefell v. Hodges decided just last June!
You clearly didn't 'fully understand'. As your entire argument collapses upon an even causal reading of my 3 sentence post. I'll bold where your argument shatters:
Skylar said:"Says who?
You may want to read the Windsor v. US decision. Subject to constitutional guarantees, the State defines marriage."
You completely ignored that section, pretending it didn't exist. Despite it being the axis around which Obergefell turned.
The Obergefell ruling NEVER found that the regulation of marriage was the arena of the federal government. Or overturned any of their findings in Windsor. Instead, the Obegefell Court found that the laws prohibiting marriage for same sex couples violated the due process and equal protection clauses.
You've mistaken a violation of constitutional guarantees with the Courts finding that marriage is defined by the Federal government. They aren't the same thing.
Your inability to discern the difference is why you were wrong. And I'm still right. As subject to constitutional guarantees, the State do define marriage.
Says who?
Says the Windsor Court itself:
Subject to certain constitutional guarantees, see , e.g., Loving v. Virginia , 388 U. S. 1, “regulation of domestic relations” is “an area that has long been regarded as a virtually exclusive province of the States,” Sosna v. Iowa , 419 U. S. 393, 404.
Windsor v. US
With the courts making it just as clear that what the meant by 'regulation of domestic relations', was marriage.
The significance of state responsibilities for the definition and regulation of marriage dates to the Nation’s beginning; for “when the Constitution was adopted the common understanding was that the domestic relations of husband and wife and parent and child were matters reserved to the States,” Ohio ex rel. Popovici v. Agler, 280 U. S. 379, 383–384.
Windsor v. US
You simply didn't know what you were talking about. And I did. Remember that. Its likely to be a pattern in our discussions.
I laid out the legal path from Windsor leading to Obergefell to show that SCOTUS had banned the several States from any obstruction of same sex marriage because it was violative of the Due Process and Equal Protection Clauses of Amendment XIV.
You laid out a legal path that's gloriously irrelevant to what we're discussing: who defines marriage, the State or the Federal Government.
Subject to constitutional guarantees, the States define marriage. Exactly as the Windsor ruling said clearly and unquestioningly. And the Obergefell ruling never overturns. Your continuing confusion on this point is obvious.
Followed by:Skylar said:"Says who?
You may want to read the Windsor v. US decision. Subject to constitutional guarantees, the State defines marriage."
SCOTUS is empowered to REDEFINE a State's definition of marriage to be in accord with constitutional guaranties, as they did in Obergefell, by telling the States with laws defining marriage to be ONLY between one man and one woman and forced those States with that definition to change that same definition. Who has the final word in the definition of marriage across the land? The several States are not empowered to make the final call on their definition of marriage.You completely ignored that section, pretending it didn't exist. Despite it being the axis around which Obergefell turned.
See the definition of define and apply same to State and SCOTUS! Can we agree that words have meaning and shades of meaning, also?
However, I do take your point given the way you have explained your intent re: your initial assertion, and hopefully you now see my position in understanding what you wrote. My immediate assumption that you were another Amendment X wing nut was active having dealt with two of them recently.