The Original Tree
Diamond Member
Pretty thin since 1912.
Yeah, as that link also mentioned many states have created laws that do not allow faithless electors. But what does "pretty thin since 1912" have to do with it? The Constitution in this respect hasn't changed.
"Pretty thin since 1912" - Great argument dude,
Shrug. Not the subject anyway.
Really? Did you honestly ask me how many faithless electors there have been and you didn't find the answer first for yourself or that it would backfire on you? Pathetic. OK, on to your next point.
If 10 of 12 electors in a state vote for the candidate who loses the popular vote, the state has no authority to arbitrarily grant all 12 votes to the winner of the popular vote.
What 10 or 12 electors are you talking about? They would vote for the popular vote winner, the state is not going to override the electors, the electors are going to pledge to vote for the popular vote winner before the election, that will be the state law.
And it will become another state law struck down by the federal courts because it pertains to a federal system.
You're dreaming of something that's never going to happen.
Jo
That's the thing, J, it doesn't. The Constitution specifically gives the states the power to decide their own electors. You guys just can't seem to find away around this very crucial detail.
The Constitution does not give them the power to IGNORE that state's voters and give their EVs to a Candidate that did not win that state.
Are you are moron, or do you just lick windows for pleasure?