Which is more plausible? Mary was really a virgin who was impregnated without sexual intercourse. Mary had sex out of wedlock and said her pregnancy occured despite being a virgin to keep from being stoned or at the very least ostracized from society. (hint - if so, she surely wouldn't have been the first to try that lie in those days) Mary didn't try to cover anything up - actually had sex though, and "virgin birth" is simply a mistranslation of a phrase which really means a woman who is pregnant out of wedlock? ?