Why does israel get a free pass when it comes to apartheid?

No you have refused to answer the question as posed, and deflected away from the reality

I answered your question many times.

The West Bank is Occupied Territory and therefore is under the 4th Geneva Conventions. You have already stated that the 4th GC covers the West Bank, therefore the confiscation of private land is illegal if it is used for anything but military purposes.



No you are refusing to answer the question because you know you must either LIE or admit to being wrong
 
No you are refusing to answer the question because you know you must either LIE or admit to being wrong

I keep answering your question but you refuse to acknowledge my answer. It is this kind of dishonesty which explains why Israel's Apartheid regime in the West Bank gets a pass.
 
It was posted and you answered the post. They admitted they were wrong and revised their estimates. In fact they removed the LIE from their report and it is no longer there.

They revised their data because Israel decided to change "private land" to "state land".

How did all the land in Maale Adumim switch from private to state land in 1 year?

Israel clearly lied because they know the uses for state land are different than the uses of private land. State land can be used for civilian infrastructure while private land cannot.

Israel knows this and changed the data accordingly. They are liars.





If that was the case then peacenow would have said so, but they didn't so it means that peacenow were wrong originally and set the matter straight.
And to cover your tracks you spew out your NAZI HATRED for Israel and the Jews. The only people that lied were peacenow, and they shot themselves in the foot when they demanded the database be made available to them. Do you know how time consuming it would be to alter all the details in such a database and then to hide all the time stamps that show the data had been altered.
 
When did they want that stretch of land?

I will also ask you once again...
How do you define Ancient History?

As a note, you SEEM to define Ancient History as anything pre-2010.

Now you're being dishonest.

I said the lands of "East Jerusalem" today were never considered part of Jerusalem under the Jordanians, the Brits, or the Ottomans.



And I have shown that they were with irrefutable evidence so stop LYING. And you said East Jerusalem not the lands so stop twisting your meaning.
 
I'd love to see a map of Jerusalem that includes the areas now called "East Jerusalem", from any time within that last 1,500 years.

A grovelling apology will be accepted

east_jerusalem.gif


Note date of map.
 
What map as I have seen none by you. But even the Palestinians called the part Of Jerusalem east Jerusalem before Israel became a nation.

I posted a link with a map to the borders of Jerusalem today, under the Jordanians, and under the British.

None of them contain most of what is today called "East Jerusalem".

There is no evidence that the Palestinians ever called these areas "East Jerusalem". Its simply untrue and you have no evidence.

http://i146.photobucket.com/albums/r247/DrSteveB/JerusalemBorders1923-2000-1.gif




That proves nothing other than you have a map that supports your POV

east_jerusalem.gif
 
That proves nothing other than you have a map that supports your POV

east_jerusalem.gif

My map shows the exact same borders for the eastern side of Jerusalem, under Jordan.

You have failed to show a map which includes all of the current sections of "east Jerusalem" as part of the city any time before 1970.

You will fail as no such map exists. I suggest you give up rather than wasting your time searching for something that doesn't exist.
 

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