When did this transfer happen?
Was it by treaty or by illegal military conquest?
Well, the interesting thing, Tinmore, is that you and I agree on a lot. And, in fact, if you would only lose the ridiculous notion that somehow rights don't apply to the Jewish people, we could get on with actual solutions to the conflict.
In order for sovereignty to transfer from one state to another two things have to happen, the existing sovereign has to part with their sovereignty and another sovereign has to take up sovereignty. (While an existing sovereign can unilaterally abandon territory, this does not create a new sovereign, it creates the condition of
terra nullius)
Article 16 of the Treaty of Lausanne takes care of the first part of our transfer. No matter how much you wish it so, and no matter how many times you repeat yourself, it does NOT take care of both parts. Why? Because Turkey does not cede the territory to a specific state; Turkey merely abandons the territory (
"renounces" is the language used in the Article). We can fact-check this by seeing whether or not another state is mentioned as being the party to whom the territory is transferred and whether that state is a signatory to the treaty. For example, Article 15 reads:
Turkey renounces in favor of Italy all rights and title to the following islands ... Since both Turkey and Italy are signatories, this is a mutual agreement made law by treaty. Article 16, which concerns the territory of Israel/Palestine does not contain any such designation of rights and title. Why? Because there was no legal entity with whom to make such an agreement. So there is no transfer of rights, only an abandoning of rights.
The Allied Powers and Britain had no rights or title to the territory in question. We can fact-check that and see if Article 16 gives rights and title to Britain, or any of the other Allied Powers who were signatories to the treaty. Nope. It does not. Again, there is no transfer of rights, only an abandoning of rights by Turkey.
With me so far?