The Zionists that colonized Israel were Europeans. They have no indigenous rights to Palestine.
The Jewish people are ONE people. (Like the Palestinian people are ONE people -- whether they live in Gaza, the "West Bank", Israel, Syria, Jordan, the US or Chile.) There is absolutely no way to measure "authentic" Jews vs. "synthetic" Jews. How would you even define such a thing? What would you base it on? The very idea reeks of racism.
Is a man with an Egyptian father and a Palestinian mother Egyptian or Palestinian? Is he Palestinian
enough to have indigenous rights? If his maternal grandparents moved from Egypt to Palestine in the 1930's -- is that
enough to make his mother an indigenous "Palestinian" or is she still Egyptian? If he was born in "Palestine" is that
enough to make him indigenously Palestinian, even if his parents were Lebanese or Egyptian or Jordanian or Syrian?
Seriously, what parameters are you going to collectively apply here?
We are discussing the collective rights of a people as a whole. The Jewish people, as a whole, collectively, originated in the territory under dispute. The Jewish people, as a whole, collectively, therefore have indigenous rights to that territory. (But not exclusive rights as Palestinians also have rights).
Resisting foreign occupation is something every people that have been victims of colonization and occupation have always done.
Sure. Its what the Jewish people are doing now.
If the Israeli Jews wanted peace they would have ended the occupation of the WB, East Jerusalem and legal occupation and blockade of Gaza.
Starting a new thread for this last.