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Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all theirPresident Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all theirPresident Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
aircraft including the Zero.
Well, some very important things are not mentioned here.
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.
Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.
President Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.
Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.
1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.
2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?
Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by everyone! What about the USA who supplied them until 1943? Directly or through Spain...3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.
Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.
1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.
Fact is that Poland occupied Ciezyn Sylesia the same day as Nazi Germany occupied Sudetenland.
And the reason of those occupation was the same - there were about 80% of germans living in Sudetenland and there were many polish in Sylesia.
By the way I wish to pay your attention that Poland also occupied Vilnus and region around it before Sylesia, same time as Germany took Austria.
Poland, Germany and Italy were the only countries who occupied any terriotories between WW1 and WW2.
It is silly for you to mention results of WW1. As a result of that war Poland appeared as a state...until WW1 Poland was part of Russian Empire. So what czech occupation of polish lands can you talk about?
Would you like me mention polish agression against the USSR in 1919-21s? Polish occupation of western Ukraine, Belarus and Lituania...
Poland is the most aggresive and abitious state in Europe. A very rare example of national psychological problem - complex of inferiority...you all try to show other nations how great you are though those days had passed 4...maybe 3 centuries ago.
2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?
In 1937-1938 Stalin fought against enemies - the USSR was surrounded by aggressive neighbours and a lot od spies were in Russia. He didn't fought against polish but against all foreigners who were suspected in espionage. Yes thousands were arested and some were executed...polish among them.
But absolutely the same was done by other governments in that time. Let's remind anti-japanese hysteria in the USA in 40s, for example, when civil famalies were placed into special camps without any reason but for their beeing japanes - not conc.camps like in nazi Germany or South Afrika by Brits but very much alike.
Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by everyone! What about the USA who supplied them until 1943? Directly or through Spain...3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
Poland had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1934 actual until 1944.
GB and France had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1938.
The USSR had it since 1939.
And please keep in mind the situation in the USSR by that time - agreecultural state after WW1 (loss of huge territories), revolution (change of government and political system beeng built without finance and educated elite), civil war 1918-1922, foreign intervention (Poland, USA, GB, Czech, Japan...). The USSR surrounded by enemies had to be industrialized else it would never have survived. That was the reason of super-strict policy inside the country - fight against anti-governmental activities, against any national resistance, strict control of agreecultural production which lead to terrble hunger in 30s...
And why USSR didn't have to cooperate to Germany? If other countries agreed for cooperating with the USSR there would probably wasn't such relations of the USSR and Germany.
But nevertheless the USSR was honest in its foreign relations - we were ready to fulfil agreement and to protect Czech, we did not sign pact to Germany until all western countries had done it. You all wanted Hitler to destroy USSR and pushed him to the east but did it in his own way...and after Europe was his he didn't stop, went east and died.
You know, my polish friend - to be great nation and to say you're a great nation is very different. History shows what is the real sooner or later.
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.
Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.
1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.
Fact is that Poland occupied Ciezyn Sylesia the same day as Nazi Germany occupied Sudetenland.
And the reason of those occupation was the same - there were about 80% of germans living in Sudetenland and there were many polish in Sylesia.
By the way I wish to pay your attention that Poland also occupied Vilnus and region around it before Sylesia, same time as Germany took Austria.
Poland, Germany and Italy were the only countries who occupied any terriotories between WW1 and WW2.
It is silly for you to mention results of WW1. As a result of that war Poland appeared as a state...until WW1 Poland was part of Russian Empire. So what czech occupation of polish lands can you talk about?
Would you like me mention polish agression against the USSR in 1919-21s? Polish occupation of western Ukraine, Belarus and Lituania...
Poland is the most aggresive and abitious state in Europe. A very rare example of national psychological problem - complex of inferiority...you all try to show other nations how great you are though those days had passed 4...maybe 3 centuries ago.
2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?
In 1937-1938 Stalin fought against enemies - the USSR was surrounded by aggressive neighbours and a lot od spies were in Russia. He didn't fought against polish but against all foreigners who were suspected in espionage. Yes thousands were arested and some were executed...polish among them.
But absolutely the same was done by other governments in that time. Let's remind anti-japanese hysteria in the USA in 40s, for example, when civil famalies were placed into special camps without any reason but for their beeing japanes - not conc.camps like in nazi Germany or South Afrika by Brits but very much alike.
You all wanted Hitler to destroy USSR and pushed him to the east but did it in his own way...and after Europe was his he didn't stop, went east and died.3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all theirPresident Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
aircraft including the Zero.
As for FDR's intelligence organization one might read "Roosevelt's Secret War" by Joseph Persico.
As for "best" that is usually a two way tie between Lincoln and FDR.Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all theirPresident Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
aircraft including the Zero.
Hitler was an insane genius.Looking for who is the main to be blamed in Hitler's arising we would come to The Treaty of Versailles
Poland had tight cooperation to nazi Germany until September 1939 as well as all other countries in Europe and the USSR so all your words worth not so much.
For example how do you like this photo
![]()
November 1938. Poland, Polish Independance day.
Marshal Edward Rydz-Śmigły, also called Edward Śmigły-Rydz, Polish politician, statesman, Marshal of Poland and Commander-in-Chief of Poland's armed forces
and german attache colonel Boguslav von Studniz.
Parade of polish army a month after Sylesia occupation.
They (the teachers) are not allowed to teach us this in the USA.(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.
Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.
1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.
Fact is that Poland occupied Ciezyn Sylesia the same day as Nazi Germany occupied Sudetenland.
And the reason of those occupation was the same - there were about 80% of germans living in Sudetenland and there were many polish in Sylesia.
By the way I wish to pay your attention that Poland also occupied Vilnus and region around it before Sylesia, same time as Germany took Austria.
Poland, Germany and Italy were the only countries who occupied any terriotories between WW1 and WW2.
It is silly for you to mention results of WW1. As a result of that war Poland appeared as a state...until WW1 Poland was part of Russian Empire. So what czech occupation of polish lands can you talk about?
Would you like me mention polish agression against the USSR in 1919-21s? Polish occupation of western Ukraine, Belarus and Lituania...
Poland is the most aggresive and abitious state in Europe. A very rare example of national psychological problem - complex of inferiority...you all try to show other nations how great you are though those days had passed 4...maybe 3 centuries ago.
2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?
In 1937-1938 Stalin fought against enemies - the USSR was surrounded by aggressive neighbours and a lot od spies were in Russia. He didn't fought against polish but against all foreigners who were suspected in espionage. Yes thousands were arested and some were executed...polish among them.
But absolutely the same was done by other governments in that time. Let's remind anti-japanese hysteria in the USA in 40s, for example, when civil famalies were placed into special camps without any reason but for their beeing japanes - not conc.camps like in nazi Germany or South Afrika by Brits but very much alike.
Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by everyone! What about the USA who supplied them until 1943? Directly or through Spain...3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
Poland had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1934 actual until 1944.
GB and France had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1938.
The USSR had it since 1939.
And please keep in mind the situation in the USSR by that time - agreecultural state after WW1 (loss of huge territories), revolution (change of government and political system beeng built without finance and educated elite), civil war 1918-1922, foreign intervention (Poland, USA, GB, Czech, Japan...). The USSR surrounded by enemies had to be industrialized else it would never have survived. That was the reason of super-strict policy inside the country - fight against anti-governmental activities, against any national resistance, strict control of agreecultural production which lead to terrble hunger in 30s...
And why USSR didn't have to cooperate to Germany? If other countries agreed for cooperating with the USSR there would probably wasn't such relations of the USSR and Germany.
But nevertheless the USSR was honest in its foreign relations - we were ready to fulfil agreement and to protect Czech, we did not sign pact to Germany until all western countries had done it. You all wanted Hitler to destroy USSR and pushed him to the east but did it in his own way...and after Europe was his he didn't stop, went east and died.
You know, my polish friend - to be great nation and to say you're a great nation is very different. History shows what is the real sooner or later.
Looking for who is the main to be blamed in Hitler's arising we would come to The Treaty of Versailles
Poland had tight cooperation to nazi Germany until September 1939 as well as all other countries in Europe and the USSR so all your words worth not so much.
For example how do you like this photo
![]()
November 1938. Poland, Polish Independance day.
Marshal Edward Rydz-Śmigły, also called Edward Śmigły-Rydz, Polish politician, statesman, Marshal of Poland and Commander-in-Chief of Poland's armed forces
and german attache colonel Boguslav von Studniz.
Parade of polish army a month after Sylesia occupation.
Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all theirPresident Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
aircraft including the Zero.