tshrimp
Diamond Member
Actually it does say the opposite, and easily understood by using the KJV. Changing the way we spell something or pronounce something slightly is one thing (ex. pertaineth instead of pertain), but changing meaning of a static word is another thing altogether. So not really fluid in the way the left it trying to make it.I have, and I don't recall even one instance where they called a man a woman. That's just one example.
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Deuteronomy 22:4-6 (From the KJV)
The woman shall not wear that which pertaineth unto a man, neither shall a man put on a woman's garment: for all that do so are abomination unto the Lord thy God.