idb
Gold Member
- Dec 26, 2010
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Wrong again junior it's always meant that. It supported the OP try again.
Did not
I said that the term to bear arms is a military term and is talking about military grade weapons. The Supreme Court in Miller vs U.S. Lewis vs. U.S. also agree's with me.
*sigh*
You said
Which was all taken from this link.The words "to bear arms" is a military term
First let’s look at the Second Amendment
“A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.”
Historically speaking it has always been used as a military term as in military grade weapons. This study is original historical research and analysis prepared for the Fifth Circuit in US v. Emerson
Figurative v. Literal Usage
"Figurative" and "literal" grammatical and rhetorical terms need some explanation. According to the Oxford English Dictionary, which bases its definitions on historical usage since the 12th century and provides historical examples for the major variations in usage, a literal meaning is one in which is "free from figures of speech, exaggeration, or allusion;" that is, one that is used in its literal sense. For example, to "carry arms" in its literal sense means to transport or convey weapons from one place to another. On the other hand, a figurative meaning is one "based on, or involving the use of, figures [of speech] or metaphors; metaphorical, not literal. For example, to "deliver up arms" was a figurative expression for disarming a defeated enemy, often on the field of battle, but only in the broadest sense is the concept of delivering or transferring weapons from the custody of the defeated forces to that of the victors of significance to the meaning of the overall expression.
http://www.potowmack.org/emerappa.html#figvlit
Unfortunately, the conclusion of that link disagreed with the conclusion that you drew from it.
I don't disagree with you about the US vs Miller - I haven't looked at it and I don't care...the basis of your original argument was flawed.
If you had said "according to the US vs Miller the term 'to bear arms' affirms the right of private citizens to possess military weapons" then you may have been right, but you chose the wrong document to back up your argument.
This is my point...I suspect we're discussing two different things.
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