The two hundred and forty page Treaty of Versailles laid out very stringent requirements for Germany, limiting that country to an army of no more than 100,000, with no air force, no submarines, and a very limited number of surface military vessels. Should Germany violate these restrictions, allied forces were authorized to reoccupy key locations and transportation depots. Obviously Hitler violated the Versailles Treaty. Why did the Allies not take appropriate action when it might have made all the difference in preventing 70,000,000 deaths?
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If you want what is probably the most comprehensive book about the period between the First and Second World Wars read
Piers Brendon's The Dark Valley: A Panorama of the 1930s.
To be extremely concise as for why France and England let Hitler and the Nazis get away with so much? WW I had been devastating, millions died, the financial cost was almost ruinous then came the Great Depression. Money aside neither Briton nor France wanted what they saw as a repeat of WW I. The French believed the Maginot Line would protect them and the British had relatively gutted their army and the RAF relying on their Navy to protect them.
Both France and England were willing to make major concessions to avoid war besides even England had come to share the US's view the the Versailles Treaty was an unjust burden thrust upon Germany primarily by France.
