That's what it says.
Yes, it’s what it says. And what? You have no opinion on this matter. You think it allows an unlimited right to keep arms and whatever you want bear to mean? Really?
As I have stated, the right to arms, like all oither rights has inherent limits.
You have a right to own and use a firearm, protected by the constitution. That doesnt mean laws against murder infringe on your right to own a use firearms because your right to same does not include the rightt to commit murder.
The state cannot infringe on the right -- it cannot place preconditions on the ecercise of the right not inherent to same, unless it can demonstrate that said precoindition is an effective, most narroly tailored and least restrictive means of achieving a demonstrably compelling state interest - primarily, in its role of portecting the rights of others.
And so, i'm not sure of your point here.
Not everyone has the right to arms, just as not everyone has the right to vote - so, no.
WOOOOW. You say not everyone has the right? Did I read that correctly?
Established fact. Not sure why you show surprise here.
Children do not have the right because theu have not reached the age of majority.
Felons do not have the right because it was removed through due process.
(insert numerous other examples here).
Just like the right to vote.
I don't see anything here that needs addressed
Seeing what you just said previous I wonder how you cope with the contradiction.
Maybe if you show a contraduction, I can address your wonderment.
I think you’re getting confused. The RKBA protects the right to possess a firearm unconnected with service in the militia. The use of the weapon is not about the 2A. Self defence is not a part of the 2A.
Why do you contiunually and deliberatly refuse to accept the fact that the 2nd protects a right to own and USE a firearm, both in its text - "keep and bear" and in its current jurisprudence - "and to use that arm"?
Self defence can be carried out in many different ways with many different items. Does that mean every item that can be used for self defence is protected? No.
Just those that constitute "arms".
I'm sure that the fact you can kill someone with a papercllip does not bring them under said term.
The 2A deals with the keeping of weapons.
And their use.
Free speech is limited based on whether it is a danger or not.
No... it is limited when it harms others and/or places others in a condition of clear, present and immediate danger.
The exact same standard shoud apply to all rights - I'm sure you'd agree.
Also, carry and conceal permits, are there free speech permits out there?
You need a permit to have a parade or other significant demonstration that uses public propetry - so, yes
I love the term “lawful”, you know what it means?
Traditionally lawful. Distinct difference, made deliberatly.
As you havent addressed my response, and so I assume my response was acceptable.
It means the US federal govt allows it. So if they ban handguns, handguns aren’t lawful, and if they ban the use of handguns, then using handguns isn’t a lawful purpose.
You haven't read
Heller?
The District’s total ban on handgun possession in the home amounts to a prohibition on an entire class of “arms” that Americans overwhelmingly choose for the lawful purpose of self-defense. Under any of the standards of scrutiny the Court has applied to enumerated constitutional rights, this prohibition—in the place where the importance of the lawful defense of self, family, and property is most acute—would fail constitutional muster
Your response thusly falls flat on its face.
A handgun isn’t dangerous?
Dangerous AND unusual.
Clearly, handguns do not fall into this category (see above).
Feel free to deomonstrate than any other class of firearms does.
Er….
So an automatic machine gun can be used for “traditionally lawful purposes”? Like what exactly? We’re getting into the realm of vague things.
There's no reaon you cannot, with full efficacy, use a machinegun for any number of the traditionally lawful porposes one might have for a firearm - hunting, target shooting/competition, personal defense, home defense.
Can you demonstrate otherwise?
Actually it isn’t the same. The prohibition on the govt is that it can’t stop and individual owning arms. That’s it.
No, its not it. It cannot infringe (see above) on the ownership and use.
The limitation on this is quite low.
Please demonstrate this to be true.
Be sure to place this limitation in context with the protections afforded other rights and how they differ from the protections afforded by the 2nd.
Find me a gun that isn’t dangerous.
All weapons are dangerous, which is why the standard isn't "dangerous", and why "dangerouns" clearly designates something other than firearms, which are clearly protected.
Your response, therefore carries no meaning.
Actually the Supreme Court said the govt can prevent people from owning such weapons in their whole class.
It did not say the govt can’t ban other weapons.
Really. Please explain how Heller allows the government to ban weapons that are -not- dangerous and unusual but are suitable for traditionally lawful purposes. Be sure to cite the relevant parts of the text.
You’re trying to make an argument out of a void.
Irony alert.
No, it’s just not there. The right is to own a weapon.
Look, at this point, you're just lying.
The protection for the right to USE a protected weapon is specifically noted in both the amendment and the jurisprudence.
Keep AND bear
Own AND use
So, I'm not sure what your overall point here is, but whatever it is, your argument for it is, at best, lacking