As I have stated, the right to arms, like all oither rights has inherent limits.
You have a right to own and use a firearm, protected by the constitution. That doesnt mean laws against murder infringe on your right to own a use firearms because your right to same does not include the rightt to commit murder.
The state cannot infringe on the right -- it cannot place preconditions on the ecercise of the right not inherent to same, unless it can demonstrate that said precoindition is an effective, most narroly tailored and least restrictive means of achieving a demonstrably compelling state interest - primarily, in its role of portecting the rights of others.
And so, i'm not sure of your point here.
Yes, there are inherent limits. However a criminal who has left prison is not part of that inherent limit.
Lost the right through due process. Irrelevant to the point.
Yes, the state can’t normally infringe on the right, unless after due process. But you have to remember people are talking about the right not being infringed upon. Clearly it is being infringed upon.
It’s not really much of an issue though.
Still not sure of your point here.
WOOOOW. You say not everyone has the right? Did I read that correctly?
Established fact. Not sure why you show surprise here.
Children do not have the right because theu have not reached the age of majority.
Felons do not have the right because it was removed through due process.
(insert numerous other examples here).
Just like the right to vote.
It’s clearly not an “established fact” and you haven’t even backed this claim up. So, you’re wrong. Children do have rights. They have limited rights.
The right to arms is not one of them. Established fact.
Felons clearly do have rights...
The right to armms is not one of them. Established fact.
But, certain rights can be infringed against after due process.
When you take awa right thru due process, the right no longer exists and therefore cannot be iunfringed upon.
Why do you contiunually and deliberatly refuse to accept the fact that the 2nd protects a right to own and USE a firearm, both in its text - "keep and bear" and in its current jurisprudence - "and to use that arm"?
The fact huh? Have you shown it’s a fact? No...
I cited the text in the 2nd and the hext in
Heller - Keep
and bear, own
and use.
Established fact.
Why do you continue with the charade?
It protects the right to own a firearm.
Keep AND bear, own AND use. You have not shown otherwise.
It protects the right to be in the militia.
Cite the text to that effect, especially as supported by
Heller.
Also, why do they need to make a right to use the weapon in an amendment about “the militia”.
They did not create a right to use a weapon, they protected it.
Prefatory clause:
It is therefore entirely sensible that the Second Amendment ’s prefatory clause announces the purpose for which the right was codified: to prevent elimination of the militia. The prefatory clause does not suggest that preserving the militia was the only reason Americans valued the ancient right; most undoubtedly thought it even more important for self-defense and hunting. But the threat that the new Federal Government would destroy the citizens’ militia by taking away their arms was the reason that right—unlike some other English rights—was codified in a written Constitution. Justice Breyer’s assertion that individual self-defense is merely a “subsidiary interest” of the right to keep and bear arms, see post, at 36, is profoundly mistaken. He bases that assertion solely upon the prologue—but that can only show that self-defense had little to do
with the right’s codification; it was the central component of the right itself.
DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA v. HELLER
And the biggest argument against this is that the Bill of Rights, everything that was written down, concerned the govt. Rights were assumed to exist. But the BoR was merely taking powers away from the feds.
Now, ownership of guns, well the feds can ban guns.
The Federal government can ban "dangerouns annd unusual weapons" that are not suitable for any of the traditionally legal uses for a firearm.
You have not in any way demonstrated that this means it can ban any class of firearm.
Just those that constitute "arms".
I'm sure that the fact you can kill someone with a papercllip does not bring them under said term.
Why? This makes no sense other than it happens to be very convenient for your own argument and nothing else.
If you want to take the position that the 2nd protects the right to own and use paperclips as a weapon, feel free.
You’re claiming self defence from the 2A without ever having proven that anyone ever spoke about the 2A and self defence in the same sentence during the debates, you’re claiming self defence based on one word and making a massive leap of faith.
Heller explains this quite well. Have a read.
DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA v. HELLER
No... it is limited when it harms others and/or places others in a condition of clear, present and immediate danger.
The exact same standard shoud apply to all rights - I'm sure you'd agree.
Yes, I agree. Do gun harm others?
Simple ownership and possession of a firearm by those who have the right to do so hams no one and places no one in a condition of clear, present and immediate danger.
If restrctions for all rights should be considered as they are for the 1st, as you said, do you not then disagree with restrictions on the simple ownership and possession on firearms by those who have the right to do so?.
You need a permit to have a parade or other significant demonstration that uses public propetry - so, yes
Do you need a permit to not have troops quartered at home? Do you need a permit to ot be tortured? Do you need a permit to not have excessive bail?
You asked for an exampleof needing a permit to exercise the right to free speech. You got one.
dunno:
Traditionally lawful. Distinct difference, made deliberatly.
As you havent addressed my response, and so I assume my response was acceptable.
So who decides what is “traditionally lawful”?
Doesn'tt matter - there's a difference between what you said - "Lawful" - and what the law says - "traditionally lawful".
You haven't read Heller?
The District’s total ban on handgun possession in the home amounts to a prohibition on an entire class of “arms” that Americans overwhelmingly choose for the lawful purpose of self-defense. Under any of the standards of scrutiny the Court has applied to enumerated constitutional rights, this prohibition—in the place where the importance of the lawful defense of self, family, and property is most acute—would fail constitutional muster
Your response thusly falls flat on its face.
No it doesn’t.
What they’re saying is that the DC law is unconstitutional because it prevents people from keeping arms.
The point, of course is that there's no way to argue that handguns are "dangerousn and unusual weapons" which can be banned when the court states expolicty that banning them vuiolates the constitution under ANY level of scrutiny.
Note too that the court stated that the DC law also violates the constitution because the requirement that any lawful firearm in the home be disassembled or bound by a trigger lock makes it impossible for citizens to
use arms for the core lawful purpose of self-defense and is hence unconstitutional.
You’re making a claim that is different from this. You’re saying the 2A protects the right to self defence with a weapon. And yet you’ve got almost nothing.
Current jurisprudence is hardly nothing.
A handgun isn’t dangerous?
Dangerous AND unusual.
Clearly, handguns do not fall into this category (see above).
Feel free to deomonstrate than any other class of firearms does.
So it’s basically unusual then, what’s the point of the term “dangerous” then?
All weapons are "dangerous" and so the inclusion of the term must mean someting other than firearms.
So, again: Feel free to deomonstrate than any other class of firearms falls into those categories.
Personally? I think the court refers to weapons that present a clear present and imminent danger to others simply by their presence -- VX gas, for isntance.
There's no reaon you cannot, with full efficacy, use a machinegun for any number of the traditionally lawful porposes one might have for a firearm - hunting, target shooting/competition, personal defense, home defense.
Can you demonstrate otherwise?
Well I’d say there are lots of weapons you could use for “traditionally lawful purposes”, which I’d assume includes hunting. Hand grenades, land mines, I guess I could hunt with a SAM missile too.
So, you can NOT demonstrate that machinegus are unsuitable for any number of the traditionally lawful porposes one might have for a firearm - hunting, target shooting/competition, personal defense, home defense.
Thank you.
No, its not it. It cannot infringe (see above) on the ownership and use.
Prove use. Come on, you’ve said it enough to require some kind of evidence.
I have repeatedly cited the text of the 2nd and
Heller, which clearly, by the inclusion of the "and" conjunction, both cover the USE of firearms.
The limitation on this is quite low.
Please demonstrate this to be true.
Be sure to place this limitation in context with the protections afforded other rights and how they differ from the protections afforded by the 2nd.
The limitation is based on the wording. Ie, the US federal govt cannot stop an individual from keeping arms. Like I’ve said, if they allow certain arms at an affordable price, then what’s the issue? You’re allowed to keep arms.
Bear arms is limited to only the militia mentioned in article 1 of the constitution.
Like I said -- at this point, its clear you're lying.
Really. Please explain how Heller allows the government to ban weapons that are -not- dangerous and unusual but are suitable for traditionally lawful purposes. Be sure to cite the relevant parts of the text.
You’re moving to something else. We’re talking about a prohibition on the US govt. Now you’re talking about the power that the US govt has. Why the switch? This isn’t about the 2A.
OK, so you cannot explain how
Heller allows the government to ban weapons that are -not- dangerous and unusual but are suitable for traditionally lawful purposes.
Thank you.
Look, at this point, you're just lying.
The protection for the right to USE a protected weapon is specifically noted in both the amendment and the jurisprudence.
Keep AND bear
Own AND use
Yeah, where is “Own AND use” in the 2A. Really, I can’t see those words.
I'm sorry - if you're going to contine to lie about this, there's no reason to continue.
Too bad, really.