No, there was not.
Give us factual, objective evidence, Sly, but you can't, can you?
From the NY Times:
" WASHINGTON — President Trump accused the F.B.I. on Friday, without evidence, of sending a spy to secretly infiltrate his 2016 campaign “for political purposes” even before the bureau had any inkling of the “phony Russia hoax.”
In fact, F.B.I. agents sent an informant to talk to two campaign advisers only after they received evidence that the pair had suspicious contacts linked to Russia during the campaign. The informant, an American academic who teaches in Britain, made contact late that summer with one campaign adviser, George Papadopoulos, according to people familiar with the matter. He also met repeatedly in the ensuing months with the other aide, Carter Page, who was also under F.B.I. scrutiny for his ties to Russia. "
F.B.I. Used Informant to Investigate Russia Ties to Campaign, Not to Spy, as Trump Claims
See, here's the thing: what is this so-called 'evidence' of suspicious contacts? There's no denying contacts took place, but the question is what made the FBI/DOJ/Obama Admin determine these contacts were suspicious, as of July 2016? I want to know the reasons why federal gov't agencies took these actions against American citizens, they ain't supposed to be spying on any of us without just cause and so far I haven't heard jack squat about any just cause. And yeah, this is spying; deny it all you want but this is the textbook definition of spying on somebody to acquire information.
Am I to believe that after all this time, this so-called evidence of suspicious contacts has not been leaked? Seriously? Not a peep out of anyone as to what they based this surveillance/spying operation on and I'm supposed to just swallow it hook, line, and sinker? Nuh-uh, ain't happening.