Abatis said:
You mean the Court reaffirmed that the 2nd secures an individual right.
No, thatÂ’s per the ruling:
Scalia's superficial summary aside, both dissents affirm that the right is an individual right:
Steven's wrote:
- "The question presented by this case is not whether the Second Amendment protects a “collective right” or an “individual right.” Surely it protects a right that can be enforced by individuals. But a conclusion that the Second Amendment protects an individual right does not tell us anything about the scope of that right."
Of course Stevens then proceeds to dislocate individual action from the protection sphere of a right that can be "enforced by individuals" but only for collective action

(which has never happened and no standing to do so would ever be granted). . .
Breyer is even more expressive in his individual right explanation and contradictory with his ensuing analysis:
- "In interpreting and applying this Amendment, I take as a starting point the following four propositions, based on our precedent and todayÂ’s opinions, to which I believe the entire Court subscribes:
(1) The Amendment protects an “individual” right—i.e., one that is separately possessed, and may be separately enforced, by each person on whom it is conferred. See, e.g., ante, at 22 (opinion of the Court); ante, at 1 (STEVENS, J., dissenting)."
So, "the entire Court subscribes" to the individual right interpretation which is in agreement with all three opinions in
Heller and SCOTUS precedent.
As I said, the individual right interpretation was reaffirmed in
Heller.
You might be confusing Heller with McDonald – level of review wasn’t addressed in Heller:
While no standard was formally established for all 2nd Amendment challenged law by
Heller, where self defense is claimed it seems strict scrutiny is the standard demanded. It also seems that rational relationship is completely off the table and for gun ownership for hunting, it has been seen that intermediate scrutiny is applied (
US v Skoien).
Bryer's (I don't know why I wrote Stevens before) interest balancing approach was addressed by the Majority, strongly in the negative. From what I have seen it seems no deviation is going to be realized for the RKBA from how other fundamental right interests are treated by the Court. (And lower courts are doing OK so far, see the most recent
Nordyke)
Scalia disagrees – it was his intent to move the interpretation to an individual right:
It has always been considered by SCOTUS to be an individual right. Name one Supreme Court case that stands for the proposition that the right is NOT individual.
The individual right codified by the Amendment was realized via the right to self-defense:
I request a bit of analytical thinking here . . . What type of gun ownership right was at issue in the case falling between
Miller and
Heller,
Lewis v US, 445 U.S. 55 (1980)?
In
Lewis SCOTUS examined the legislative intent to impose a firearms disability on any felon based on the fact of conviction. The sponsor of this part of GCA'68, Senator Long, stated that "
every citizen could possess a gun until the commission of his first felony" and that the right disablement was meant to, "deny every assassin, murderer, thief and burglar of the right to possess a firearm in the future except where he has been pardoned by the President or a State Governor and had been expressedly authorized by his pardon to possess a firearm." The Court notes that, as the felon disablement amendment's sponsor, Senator Long's statements are entitled to considerable weight. The Court thus recognizes that a non-felon does possess an individual right to own and use firearms for
lawful purposes.
I find it especially interesting that when the Court reviews the different measures of disability relief available to the felon, the Court
never mentions that after his pardon,
in order to fully reclaim his right to acquire, own and use a firearm for lawful purpose, the felon must join his state's militia.
It seems inexplicable to me that the Court would forget the single determinative conditioning factor that makes one's individual right to arms legally valid!
For me
Lewis is unremarkable because it is plainly the Court's opinion that one's individual right to arms is exercisable and claimable without any connection to militia (until you commit a felony).
When you render them down the
Heller dissents are essentially arguing that instead of enjoying an inherent right, an inherent disability exists on the citizen's individual right to keep and bear arms
until one joins their state's militia.
What an utterly absurd theory.
Scalia in Heller said:
As the quotations earlier in this opinion demonstrate, the inherent right of self-defense has been central to the Second Amendment right. The handgun ban amounts to a prohibition of an entire class of “arms” that is overwhelmingly chosen by American society for that lawful purpose.
Does that passage really strike you as exceptional or groundbreaking, upsetting precedent?