So, because the supreme court had ruled in the mid 1960s that States could not interfere with a married couple's right to decide to use birth control, due to the 14th amendment privacy right, and then another case a few years later where the supreme court ruled the state government couldn't prevent single women from using birth control either, when Roe v Wade hit the supreme court, they also ruled, based on being consistent, the State govt could not intervene in a man or woman's right to privacy when it came to having a child or not, in the early stages of pregnancy....there was nothing in the constitution that gave govt the POWER to interfere or even know if a woman is pregnant, let alone her decision to bear or not bear a child.... Is my understanding?