"satan" in Judaism

An angel.

And what is the angel's name?

And what is the angel's name?

And what is the angel's name?

And what is the angel's name?

And what is the angel's name?

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

I"m reading it right now, the translation says:

"And the Lord said unto Satan."
 
And what is the angel's name?

And what is the angel's name?

And what is the angel's name?

And what is the angel's name?

And what is the angel's name?

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

I"m reading it right now, the translation says:

"And the Lord said unto Satan."

Try reading it in Hebrew.
 
The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

The "name" of the angel is not mentioned.

I"m reading it right now, the translation says:

"And the Lord said unto Satan."

Try reading it in Hebrew.

That's exactly what it says, in both Old Hebrew and Modern Hebrew.

It doesn't say "The Lord said unto the angel" or "The Lord said unto the Elohim" it clearly says that "The Lord said unto Satan."
 
I"m reading it right now, the translation says:

"And the Lord said unto Satan."

Try reading it in Hebrew.

That's exactly what it says, in both Old Hebrew and Modern Hebrew.

It doesn't say "The Lord said unto the angel" or "The Lord said unto the Elohim" it clearly says that "The Lord said unto Satan."

"Elohim" means "god", not "angel".

And an accurate translation would be "The Lord said unto the satan"
 
Actually it says "the bnei Elokim", which we understand as angels. And 'the Soton" was among them.
Doctor, I have to congratulate you. We dont often see eye to eye but you successfully smoked out this poseur and revealed his abject ignorance for all.
 
Actually it says "the bnei Elokim", which we understand as angels. And 'the Soton" was among them.
Doctor, I have to congratulate you. We dont often see eye to eye but you successfully smoked out this poseur and revealed his abject ignorance for all.

SO with whom is G-d having a conversation? Are we to believe the G-d is talking to a non-entity, or to Himself?

A conservation requires two parties.

Let us not forget that the second party, "Satan," SPEAKS BACK.
 
Last edited:
Actually it says "the bnei Elokim", which we understand as angels. And 'the Soton" was among them.
Doctor, I have to congratulate you. We dont often see eye to eye but you successfully smoked out this poseur and revealed his abject ignorance for all.

SO with whom is G-d having a conversation? Are we to believe the G-d is talking to a non-entity, or to Himself?

Asked and answered.
 
Actually it says "the bnei Elokim", which we understand as angels. And 'the Soton" was among them.
Doctor, I have to congratulate you. We dont often see eye to eye but you successfully smoked out this poseur and revealed his abject ignorance for all.

SO with whom is G-d having a conversation? Are we to believe the G-d is talking to a non-entity, or to Himself?

Asked and answered.

Ok, let's ask the other side of this question.

What is SPEAKING to G-d?
 
so with whom is g-d having a conversation? Are we to believe the g-d is talking to a non-entity, or to himself?

asked and answered.

ok, let's ask the other side of this question.

What is speaking to g-d?

וַיַּעַן הַשָּׂטָן אֶת-יְהוָה,
 
"Elohim" means "god", not "angel".

And an accurate translation would be "The Lord said unto the satan"

How does one say "sons of G-d" in Hebrew?

Bene Elohim or Bnai Elohim would be the English transliteration.

Which is where the Islamic term "Bin" comes from. You said that G-D was speaking to an "angel" aka "Bene Elohim" so that part that says:

"The Lord said unto -----" does it say "Bene Elohim" or "Satan" or "the satan."

The phrase "the satan" is ruled out, since SOMETHING other than G-D is speaking BACK to G-d.

We know it's not "Bene Elohim" so clearly the Lord had spoken to a Being, named Satan.

Clearly G-D is speaking to an Angel, but he does not simply address him as "son of god" or "son of Mine" but as "Satan."
 
Last edited:
Well this thread got weird but food stamps and welfare are indeed democrat slavery. It trades your future for some comfort now. It limits your ability to make something of yourself by design.

If you are on food stamps or welfare you aren't allowed to make much extra money or you lose those benefits whether you have improved your position in life sufficiently to support yourself or not. It's actually drawn up to the point you are better off not improving because the jump to self sufficiency is too great of a leap.

So they have made it a bridge too far for anyone to achieve. And that is the slavery. You take our handouts and vote to keep those handouts or you get nothing. When in reality the best thing would be opportunity and giving people a way to work themselves out of this poverty but that doesn't help those that need dependents to vote for them.

Once the democrats release people from the government dole they become extinct. In order to survive elections they need people that can't get out of the welfare cycle and have convinced them if they don't vote for this slavery they will die.
 
How does one say "sons of G-d" in Hebrew?

Bene Elohim or Bnai Elohim would be the English transliteration.

Which is where the Islamic term "Bin" comes from. You said that G-D was spekaing to an "angel" aka "Bene Elohim" so that part that says:

"The Lord said unto -----" does it say "Bene Elohim" or "Satan"

Actually, many historical Torah scholars believed that "Bnai Elohim" refers to powerful, magical mortal men, not "angels".

..and you can keep running around quoting the King James translation as much as you like, it's not going to change thousands of years of Jewish tradition and interpretation.
 
Bene Elohim or Bnai Elohim would be the English transliteration.

Which is where the Islamic term "Bin" comes from. You said that G-D was spekaing to an "angel" aka "Bene Elohim" so that part that says:

"The Lord said unto -----" does it say "Bene Elohim" or "Satan"

Actually, many historical Torah scholars believed that "Bnai Elohim" refers to powerful, magical mortal men, not "angels".

..and you can keep running around quoting the King James translation as much as you like, it's not going to change thousands of years of Jewish tradition and interpretation.

Now we're going into the realm of Enoch.
 
Actually, many historical Torah scholars believed that "Bnai Elohim" refers to powerful, magical mortal men, not "angels".

First of all, you are the word who used the term "angel." I asked you to whom was G-d speaking, and you replied "An angel."

Because I didn't' want to split hairs with you, I let that go, but clearly he is speaking to the "Sons of G-d." Why do you think I asked you how does one say "Sons of G-d," because I didn't know myself? I was asking to see if you even realized your own mistake when you said "angel," since you responded correctly, I knew you threw out the term "angel" in a loose fashion so as not to confuse non Jewish/Hebrew speaking USMB members.

And yes, the Book of Enoch (OMG HERESY) and other rejected canon certainly help us better understand the Bene Elohim. We see the term "Nephilim" in Genesis 6 and Numbers 13. The author of the Book of Job assumes that one is familiar with the book of Enoch, which makes one wonder why the Rabbis accepted the Book of Job (most reluctantly, and have written thousands of pages denying the personification of Satan) and denied the Book of Enoch, which is requisite for the Book of Job.
 
Last edited:
How does one say "sons of G-d" in Hebrew?

Bene Elohim or Bnai Elohim would be the English transliteration.

Which is where the Islamic term "Bin" comes from. You said that G-D was speaking to an "angel" aka "Bene Elohim" so that part that says:

"The Lord said unto -----" does it say "Bene Elohim" or "Satan" or "the satan."

The phrase "the satan" is ruled out, since SOMETHING other than G-D is speaking BACK to G-d.

We know it's not "Bene Elohim" so clearly the Lord had spoken to a Being, named Satan.

Clearly G-D is speaking to an Angel, but he does not simply address him as "son of god" or "son of Mine" but as "Satan."

I don't know why this is so hard for you to understand.

In Job, God has a conversation with an angel that he has tasked with testing Job's faith.

That angel is referred to by the title "the adversary", or "the challenger" - which is what the word "satan" means.

Every time the word "satan" appears in Job, it is written haSatan. "ha" means "the".
 
Actually, many historical Torah scholars believed that "Bnai Elohim" refers to powerful, magical mortal men, not "angels".

First of all, you are the word who used the term "angel." I asked you to whom was G-d speaking, and you replied "An angel."

Because I didn't' want to split hairs with you, I let that go, but clearly he is speaking to the "Sons of G-d." Why do you think I asked you how does one say "Sons of G-d," because I didn't know myself? I was asking to see if you even realized your own mistake when you said "angel," since you responded correctly, I knew you threw out the term "angel" in a loose fashion so as not to confuse non Jewish/Hebrew speaking USMB members.

And yes, the Book of Enoch (OMG HERESY) and other rejected canon certainly help us better understand the Bene Elohim.

Well, no. You asked how to say "Sons of God" because you had already mistakenly referred to them as "Elohim", which just means "God".

Bnai Elohim refers not to angels in general, but to a specific type of "angel" (or perhaps not). It is not an all-inclusive term for "angel".

The word mal'akh, which means "messenger" is generally translated as "angel", and appears much more frequently than Bnai Elohim.
 
Actually, many historical Torah scholars believed that "Bnai Elohim" refers to powerful, magical mortal men, not "angels".

First of all, you are the word who used the term "angel." I asked you to whom was G-d speaking, and you replied "An angel."

Because I didn't' want to split hairs with you, I let that go, but clearly he is speaking to the "Sons of G-d." Why do you think I asked you how does one say "Sons of G-d," because I didn't know myself? I was asking to see if you even realized your own mistake when you said "angel," since you responded correctly, I knew you threw out the term "angel" in a loose fashion so as not to confuse non Jewish/Hebrew speaking USMB members.

And yes, the Book of Enoch (OMG HERESY) and other rejected canon certainly help us better understand the Bene Elohim.

Well, no. You asked how to say "Sons of God" because you had already mistakenly referred to them as "Elohim", which just means "God".

Bnai Elohim refers not to angels in general, but to a specific type of "angel" (or perhaps not). It is not an all-inclusive term for "angel".

The word mal'akh, which means "messenger" is generally translated as "angel", and appears much more frequently than Bnai Elohim.

You said the term "angel" first, you cannot back out of that. I assumed you were illiterate in Hebrew.
 

Forum List

Back
Top