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I have to select Other from the Poll options and here is the requested explanation.
The Thread Title and the OP asks the wrong fundamental question, and that is if I may paraphrase,:
The assumption is that Public Accommodation laws are valid, but that someone can claim an narrowly tailored special privilege (Religious Exemption) to apply only to one specific group The Gheys.
Public Accommodation laws are built on the premise that government has a fundamental function to regulate the practices of private businesses who provide goods and services to the general public in terms of who they chose to provide such goods and services as opposed to regulations such as fire codes, tax codes, food safety, etc., which have a fundamental function of ensuring public safety.
This narrowly awarded special privilege, as noted, would only apply to The Gheys. A person could claim my religion says I cant provide services to the gays and that person would receive such an exception. Another person could claim my religion says I cant provide services to interracial couples but they would not be eligible for the exemption because the basis isnt gay its race. Another person could claim my religion says I cant provide services to (Christians, Muslims, Buddhists, Jews, etc. [pick a religion of choice]) but they would not be eligible for the exemption because the basis isnt gay its religion. Another person could claim my religion says I cant provide services to women but they would not be eligible for the exemption because the basis isnt gay its gender.
Remember, the basis of the special privilege (being exempt from the law) is the claim of individual religious beliefs, those beliefs are not required to be proven, they do not need to be generally accepted by a religious organization they are the personal beliefs of the individual to claim the exemption.
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So the more appropriate question, IMHO is this:
Given: As a private business entity, the owners of such an entity are the owners of the goods and services they provide.
Given: Individuals can have a desire for the goods and services provided by another private entity, but they do not have a right
Given: That Public Accommodation laws use the power of government to force private business owners to associate with and provide goods and services to customers the owner has no desire to conduct business with.
Question: Should the desire of the individual to have a specific private business entity usurp the right of that business owner to free association (the flip side being a right to chose non-association) and their property rights.
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The OP asks What should be
? as opposed to What is
?, which is a perfectly valid question but many confuse the two. I can argue and articulate the law and some of the case history which shows the basis of What is, that is a totally different thing then discussing What should be. Some however seem incapable of differentiating the two and confuse what they think the law should be with what the law actually is.
This case shows that the couple (apparently) violated the law, although a final determination by the appropriate government entity hasnt been rendered yet. Sweet Cakes by Melisa (Oregon) and Elane Photography (New Mexico) violated the law, the New Mexico case going all the way to the NM Supreme Court who upheld the law and provided that religion was not a special privilege to claim exception.
I'm for the repeal of this classification of laws commonly referred to as "Public Accommodation" laws and I mean both at the federal, state, and local level because they interfere with the right of private individuals in terms of speech, assembly, self determination. A private business should be able to choose to service or not service customers base on a business model they choose to create and then they can survive or fail based on how the public accepts (or rejects) that model.
With that said there are two conditions to which I would be open:
1. This would not apply to emergency and/or life threatening medical treatment especially when time is of the essence. However it would not apply to elective procedures.
2. While "Public Accommodation" laws would not apply to totally private enterprises, government entities (federal, state, and local) could (and should) establish laws within their jurisdiction which provide that government entities will not discriminate against it's citizens based on race, ethnicity, national origin, marital status, gender, sexual orientation, age, religion, ya-da, ya-da. That such entities as a matter of law and policy may not do business with private entities which are found to function under a discriminatory business model. This is not the government saying that the business must operate in a certain way (which is the businesses choice), just that the government will not contract services or materials from entities that discriminate (which is the governments choice).
If a Jewish Deli owner doesn't want to sell a sandwich to a Muslim. Fine.
If a Bakery doesn't want to sell cupcakes to Asians. Fine.
If a Photographer doesn't want to shoot a lesbian commitment ceremony. Fine.
The problem is some on the right want special privileges to the threat of Public Accommodation laws as a means for discriminating against one narrowly defined group, and those on the left have used such laws in the past which lends some credence to the claims of those on the right.
Private legal entities should be able to discriminate against whomever they want, whether it be by race, religion, ethnicity, gender, marital status, veterans status, age, sexual orientation, parental status, etc. - and if they choose not to be eligible for government contracts, that's their choice.
Freedom can sometimes be messy.
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