Oy! Those Crafty Jews!

[markef]

Israeli Jews are currently the source of 99.5% of the violence across West Asia as proven by their invasions/occupations of Lebanon and Syria, collective punishment, ethnic cleansing, and genocide in Palestine, and illegal war of aggression on Iran.

Deranged barbarians actually believe Israel is wicked for defending itself from genocidal assaults from its neighbors.

 

[AnOrangeCat]

• Deliberate Destruction of Life-Sustaining Infrastructure: Israel’s military campaign has systematically decimated Gaza's healthcare, education, and agricultural sectors. Investigators point to over 500 attacks on healthcare facilities, the destruction of all universities, and the leveling of up to 70% of housing. [1, 2, 3]

Volume of attacks doesn't prove they're deliberate.

Also, Hamas uses civilian infrastructure to hide behind human shields and plan & launch attacks. Those are actual war crimes.

 

[markef]

Israeli Jews are invading and occupying Lebanon and Syria, right?

For how many centuries have nations lost or gained properties through wars?

 

[AnOrangeCat]

• Imposition of Destructive Conditions of Life: Reports from human rights groups note that Israel's "total siege" has been used to weaponize access to water, food, electricity, and fuel. This policy has caused widespread starvation, acute malnutrition, and a breakdown of sanitary condition

Again, these are all subjective. Not grounded in any fact that proves genocide.

Everything you don't like about war isn't genocide.

 

[AnOrangeCat]

• Reproductive Violence: Evidence compiled by the UN COI points to a 300% increase in miscarriages, the systematic destruction of maternity wards, and specific attacks on reproductive health infrastructure—including a December 2023 strike on Gaza's largest fertility clinic that destroyed roughly 4,000 embryos. [1]

How do you prove that it's systematic? You're just saying the very fact that it occurs proves it's systematic. That's not the same thing. Hamas hiding in civilian infrastructure doesn't mean Israel is committing genocide, it means Hamas is.

 

[markef]

Yes, it does have a definition, but in your murderous Talmudic zeal you ignore that definition. Sick minds promote genocide.

Objectively genocide is ongoing in the Levant, and has been going on for years. Your hateful emotions and religious psychobabble are the feelings your religious zeal has you thinking. You do the work of Moloch, and are proud of it..

Which is true? The Arabs are attempting to drive out all Jews from the river to the sea or the Jews are attempting to drive out all Arabs from the river to the sea?

 

[PeterPilot]

Which is true? The Arabs are attempting to drive out all Jews from the river to the sea or the Jews are attempting to drive out all Arabs from the river to the sea?

Both.

 

[AnOrangeCat]

• Evidence of Genocidal Intent

Oh I see it's now an argument of intent, which is a fancy way of saying that no genocide has objectively or empirically occurred.

You can't argue genocide and then argue intent to genocide. Those are two things that conflict. Intent of genocide is subjective, and you're here saying that there's an intent of genocide that you feel you see. That means that objectively, there is no genocide because your mind has to overlook empirical or literal fact in order to argue intent.

 

[georgephillip]

In 1917, it belonged to the Ottoman empire.

Then in 1919, it became the British Mandate.

Then in 1948, it became Israel, Jordan, and Egypt.

"Before 1948, Jewish-owned land in Mandatory Palestine constituted under 6% of the total territory.

"Following the 1948 war, the newly formed State of Israel took control of approximately 78% of the land (about 20,770 square kilometers).

"Since then, through ongoing expropriation and military occupation, Israel’s control of historical Palestine has increased to over 85%."

GoogleAI Overview

 

[AnOrangeCat]

Evacuation routes in Gaza, as described by LTC Aguilar last year, facilitate the genocide.

Oh, so they "facilitate" genocide by evacuating people out of a wwar zone where they would otherwise die.

How does that facilitate genocide? Explain. If anything it seems to do the opposite.

 

[AnOrangeCat]

It forces the Palestinians into a chute, as they do with cattle.

Into a chute? For what purpose, ultimately? If there's genocide, why would they even evacuate anyone?

In that chute they can be easily shot.

But they aren't. There's the same # of Gazans today as there were on 10/7.

So where's the genocide?

It seems like genocide is not an objective fact but a frame of mind. Is that what you're saying??

 

[AnOrangeCat]

Both.

How does that reconcile with the existence of 2 million Israeli Arab citizens?

 

[AnOrangeCat]

"Before 1948, Jewish-owned land in Mandatory Palestine constituted under 6% of the total territory.

So what?

 

[georgephillip]

You said yourself it was because of revenge.

So Arabs took revenge on their Jewish populations for actions of a country they had nothing to do with.

The Arabs took revenge against European Jews expelling 700,000 Arabs from Palestine in 1948.

"1. The 1948 Arab-Israeli War and the Nakba

"During the 1948 war, an estimated 750,000 Palestinians were expelled or fled. Following this, the Israeli government passed a series of laws to expropriate the land they left behind: [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]

• "The Abandoned Property Ordinance (1948): Allowed the state to seize property belonging to Palestinians who fled or were expelled, classifying them as 'absentees'"
• The Absentee Property Law (1950): Consolidated this seizure, legally transferring the assets, homes, and agricultural lands of Palestinian refugees to the Israeli Custodian of Absentee Property. [1, 2, 3, 4]
• Extent: Estim ates from sources like the Institute for Middle East Understanding indicate that over 4.2 million acres (roughly 17,000 square kilometers) of Palestinian land were expropriated during and immediately after the establishment of the state."

GoogleAI Overview

 

[AnOrangeCat]

"Following the 1948 war, the newly formed State of Israel took control of approximately 78% of the land (about 20,770 square kilometers).

So what?

"Since then, through ongoing expropriation and military occupation, Israel’s control of historical Palestine has increased to over 85%."

"Historical Palestine"? What are you talking about? There has never been a Palestine.

 

[AnOrangeCat]

The Arabs took revenge against European Jews expelling 700,000 Arabs from Palestine in 1948.

How could Israel have expelled Arabs while simultaneously making 175,000 citizens and fighting off 5 Arab armies?

 

[markef]

Both.

The phrase was apparently first used by Arabs to highlight their goal of pushing every Jew off the land from the Jordan River to the Mediterranean sea.


From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

This article is about the phrase. For the territory historically comprised between the Jordan and the Mediterranean, see Palestine (region).
"Free Palestine" redirects here. For the Palestinian Syrian organized movement, see Free Palestine Movement. For the European political alliance, see Free Palestine Party.

The region of Palestine, from the Jordan River in the east to the Mediterranean Sea in the west

"From the river to the sea" (Arabic: من النهر إلى البحر, romanized: min an-nahr ʾilā l-baḥr; Palestinian Arabic: من المياه للمياه, romanized: min il-ṃayye la-l-ṃayye, lit. 'from the water to the water') is a political slogan that refers to the area between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea – an area historically known as Palestine, which was formerly ruled by the British as Mandatory Palestine, and which today encompasses Israel and the occupied Palestinian territories of the West Bank and the Gaza Strip.

The phrase and its variations have been used both by Palestinians and Israelis to mean that the area should consist of one state, rather than two or three.

In the 1960s, the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) used it to call for what they saw as a "decolonized" state encompassing the entirety of Mandatory Palestine.

By 1969, after several revisions, the PLO used the phrase to call for a one-state solution, that would mean "one democratic secular state that would supersede the ethno-religious state of Israel".

 

[markef]

"Before 1948, Jewish-owned land in Mandatory Palestine constituted under 6% of the total territory.

"Following the 1948 war, the newly formed State of Israel took control of approximately 78% of the land (about 20,770 square kilometers).

"Since then, through ongoing expropriation and military occupation, Israel’s control of historical Palestine has increased to over 85%."

GoogleAI Overview

The Arabs immediately went to war with the Jews after the international agreement divided Judea into the two states of Israel and Palestine. Palestinians adopted the slogan "from the river to the sea" as their rallying cry to drive Jews completely off the land and form the one Arab state 'final solution.'

 

[rosends]

Both.

and how is the claim that "the Jews are attempting to drive out all Arabs from the river to the sea" served by the 2 million Arab citizens of Israel who aren't being asked to move anywhere?

 

[georgephillip]

No, it was entirely owned by the Ottoman Empire, based in Instanbul.

Where's your link?

GoogleAI Overview:

"The Land System in 1917

"When British forces took control of Palestine in 1917, they inherited a land registration system from the Ottoman Empire. The total land was divided into several key categories: [1, 2, 3, 4]

• "Private Arab Land (Mulk): Around 11.6% of the land was fully owned by resident Palestinians and utilized for residential use or farming. [1, 2]
• State Land (Miri): Roughly 26.5% of the land was state-controlled, but local Arab farmers held traditional, inheritable lease and usage right
• Public and Uncultivated Land (Mewat and Matruka): About 44% consisted of uncultivated, mountainous, or public utility lands. [1, 2, 3]
• Absentee Landlords: An estimated 6.9% was owned by prominent non-Palestinian Arab families or foreign owners living outside of Palestine, who later sold portions of this land"