Origin of articles in Western European languages

rupol2000

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Aug 22, 2021
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If we consider this langs to be the heirs of Indo-European (although typologically this is not so), then this could not be a source, because in the ancient IE there are not articles. It are there in the Semitic. How did it get into Western Europe? If through the Germans it means the Proto-Germanic language is related to the Semitic, so it turns out?
 
I don't know from where they got into the English and other West European languages, but they are the thing I still find confusing and can't grasp the logic of appropriate using them.
 
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I don't know from where they got into the English and other West European languages, but they are the thing I still find confusing and can't grasp the logic of appropriate using them.
Most often this corresponds to the difference between an abstract and a specific object, but it still interferes and it does not always work, apparently some of the use cases just developed historically
 
Most often this corresponds to the difference between an abstract and a specific object, but it still interferes and it does not always work, apparently some of the use cases just developed historically
Maybe. Once, I tried to sort the thing out. But after all I gave up. And now I use them as I feel appropriate.
 
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Maybe. Once, I tried to sort the thing out. But after all I gave up. And now I use them as I feel appropriate.
It is not difficult to sort the thing out, conceptually these are modified "one" and "this", but in practice this does not help much.
 
I don't know from where they got into the English and other West European languages, but they are the thing I still find confusing and can't grasp the logic of appropriate using them.
The English are from a German tribe called Anglosachsen. They took their language with them, mixed it with Romanic (Latin) and new elements and a new language came into being. The German language ascends from Germanic languages but is now very different from what it has been 1000 years ago. Spanish, Portuguese, French and Italian ascend from Latin. Slavic languages are also from northern tribes.
 
The English are from a German tribe called Anglosachsen. They took their language with them, mixed it with Romanic (Latin) and new elements and a new language came into being. The German language ascends from Germanic languages but is now very different from what it has been 1000 years ago. Spanish, Portuguese, French and Italian ascend from Latin. Slavic languages are also from northern tribes.
I don't argue with that. My point was that for someone, whose native tongue doesn't have the articles, it is difficult to comprehend their proper use in the English.
 
The disappearance of Old English roughly coincides with the emergence of Gothic. I think this is Germanic influence, as previously suggested.
And in general, the degeneration of Indo-European grammar too.
 

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