sangha
Senior Member
- Jun 1, 2010
- 5,997
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Why am I not surprised that sangha totally skipped this post and has not posted any proof?
Rick
http://www.brennancenter.org/page/-/Democracy/dnc.v.rnc/2004 Daschle TRO.pdf
Read it and weep
So, you prove that you are in Truthdoesn'tmatter's league for intelligence.
This is not a consent decree.
I posted the wrong link. There's so many links to the RNC's history of electoral fraud, I sometimes mix them up.

Here's the right link
D.N.J.: Republican National Committee Still Bound by Consent Decree Prohibiting Voter Suppression — NSCLC Website
And you keep saying thatThe GOP went to court arguing that they had a constitutional right to intimidate voters.
And your little link here proves that you are a bold faced liar.
Not only is this not a consent decree, but the GOP never once said that they had a "constitutional right to intimidate voters."
Anything else you'd like to prove you lied about?
Rick
Idiots like Rick don't understand the written word, even when it's in English
http://www.brennancenter.org/page/-/Democracy/dnc.v.rnc/2004 Daschle TRO.pdf
In accordance with Local No. 93. Int'l Ass'n of Firefighters, AFL-CIO v. City of Cleveland, 478 U.S. 501 (1986), and Rufo v. Inmates of Suffolk County Jail, 502 U.S. 367 (1992), the court dismissed as meritless Defendants threshold argument that the decree was impermissibly broad because it went beyond the relief available for the original claims. Citing Ry. Employees' Dep't v. Hanson, 351 U.S. 225 (1956), the opinion also found the free speech objection irrelevant as judicial enforcement of an agreement between private parties is not state action for the purposes of the First Amendment.
The bolded text makes it clear that the RNC objected to the TRO on the grounds that it violated their 1st Amend rights.