martybegan
Diamond Member
- Apr 5, 2010
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There is absolutely nothing unconstitutional about a state deciding how the electoral votes are apportioned. You may not like it but hey...tough shit
It denies a Republican form of government, and violates 1 person 1 votes as imposed on the States via the 14th amendment.
It denies the will of the Majority in State for voters out of the State.
Once AGAIN --- the will of the Majority was denied in the last election in:
In ALL of which the choice of the majority was nonexistent.
- AridZona
- Colorado
- Florida
- Michigan
- Minnesota
- Nevada
- New Hamster
- New Mexico
- North Cackalackee
- Pennsylvania
- Utah
- Virginia
- Wisconsin
And yet --- every one of these states sent 100% of their electoral votes --- 154 in total --- to a single candidate who failed to crack a majority of the state's vote.
How was the "will of the majority" denied in those States?
Oh, you are being a smarmy twat about the difference between a plurality and a majority.
Figures you have to go to semantics when you don't have a real argument.
Nope. NONE of those states recorded a vote of 50% or more for any candidate. I'm in one of them. In our case we have 15 electors, a conveniently odd number. Did we send 8 electors for Rump and 7 for Clinton? Or 7 for Rump, 6 for Clinton, one each for Johnson/Stein? No, they sent ALL FIFTEEN for Rump. Minority sweeps. THAT's the issue, nothing to do with "pluralities".
All of which means more than half of my state's voters --- as well as every other state on that list --- had their votes immediately shitcanned.
Go right ahead, look 'em up. I'm way ahead of you.
No, the plurality did sweep, and that's how it works.
The State can always change it to 2 EV's per statewide vote, and 1 each for each congressional district. That would be far more fair and more apt to match the popular vote (but who cares) than making your vote beholden to a plurality outside your own State.