Obviously you didn't read all the OP or you're attempting to assert that any deal made with Iran (a foreign country) does not constitute a treaty.
I am saying that an agreement does not constitute a treaty, unless it is actually a treaty.
It's all semantics and still nothing more that an attempted end run around Congress. Sorry but that logic won't fly, it will and should be challenged immediately if it happens.
The key is that making a written agreement with a foreign nation is a treaty regardless of how one tries to spin it and the process for that is covered in the Constitution. I can only assume the reason Obama would attempt to bypass the Congress is he knows they will not approve it, fortunately or unfortunately (depending on how one views it) that's the way our government works and the law(s) must be followed, by law he has to present it to Congress for ratification.
I don't think you understand what a treaty is. It's a binding law between two countries. How can Obama create a binding law between the US and Iran by himself? It's impossible. It's not even a question of going beyond his power. It is, in fact, impossible to do, even if a person tried to do it.
As President, Obama has the power to ease sanctions on Iran. If the administration works out a deal with Iran, the only way the US will "live up" to it is for Obama to do so himself. There is no way to bind any subsequent President to continue easing restrictions, nor anything preventing said future President from establishing new sanctions. You are arguing that this would be a treaty
de facto, but that would be entirely impossible.