I pointed to verse 20 for a reason. There's no logical way one can interpret both 5 and 20 in the same way.
1.If You interpret ("translate") 5 as You do, then 20 contradicts it because they're still called later "
sons" or "
children"
2.If You try to fit 20 into the same picture, You need to somehow show that it doesn't matter that the word "no" changed its' place in relation to "children".
To do that You'll have to show that that translation works as well, in other books.
I'm listening.
In v19 shows God rejected the Jews because he hates them. There's a reason you started your quote at v20.
They were God's sons and daughters until they turned away from God, and which point they were no long God's children. Many other OT passages reveal God's hatred for unfaithful Jews. In the Christian perspective, God hates all Jews because Jews reject Jesus, and therefor are not faithful to God, "If God were your Father, you would love me, for I came from God... You are of your father the devil."
Deut 32 says Jews are not God's children. You might insert "as" to try to change the meaning, but your "as" doesn't fit the context of either the chapter, the book, the OT, and the Bible. But, at least can enjoy your dumb, little lapdog, Indeependent.