dcraelin
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- Sep 4, 2013
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The 16th Amendment merely confirmed what the Supreme Court had already ruled in Flint - that Congress did have power to lay and collect taxes calculated from incomes without apportionment. In fact, the 16th Amendment granted no new power to Congress as stated by the Supreme Court in Stanton v. Baltic Mining Co. (1916):
"...by the previous ruling (the previous ruling was Brushaber v. Union Pacific R.R. Co. 1916), it was settled that the provisions of the 16th Amendment conferred no new power of taxation but simply prohibited the previous complete and plenary power of income taxation possessed by Congress from the beginning from being taken out of the category of INDIRECT taxation to which it inherently belonged.."
I agree with all this. Somehow you think it proves your point. ???
"no new power of taxation" means Congress could always tax anyway they wanted to
what 16th amendment essentially did was say the gimmicky ruling in Pollock v farmers loan was erroneous