Can one of you bullshit propagandists show us a country or nation of "Arab Palestine" that existed in the last 700 years?
Who were its rulers, it's capital, currency, distinct language, etc. ?
Palestine is an invention circa 1967 after the Arabs got their asses kicked and decided to hijack an identity they never had.
Arab commentator acknowledges: “When the State of Israel was established in 1948, there was no state called ‘palestine’”
Kuwaiti Writer Abdullah Al-Hadlaq: Israel Is a Legitimate State, Not an Occupier; There Was No Palestine; I Support Israel-Gulf-U.S. Alliance to Annihilate Hizbullah
False.
Palestine was officially created and recognized by the Treaties of San Remo and Sevres, in 1920.
That can never change and is recorded history.
What would a Kuwaiti know about Palestine, nor would anyone believe a Kuwaite writer when the emir had all the good journalist killed.
Do you see “palestine” on this map of the Ottoman Empire, year 1900?
View attachment 339616
Yes, the map is labeled "Palestine". but you have cut off the label at the top.
Here is what a typical Ottoman Empire map of Palestine looks like.
Note the label "Palestine" at the top.
You’re not very good at this: Nowhere in the map is there an administrative unit named “palestine.” No such place existed.
That is the whole point.
It is the REGION that was always called Palestine, and it was not until 1920 that it was made into an independent country, as a federation of the little tribal areas inside of it.
That is the way countries are always formed.
German was 16 separate states until confederation.
{... Prussia and the other
states in Northern and Central
Germany united as a
federal state, the North
German Federation, on July 1, 1867 ...}
There was no Germany before that, just the name of the region.
The Romans called Israel “Palestine” after they conquered it.
If you don’t know this from a simple Google search then you are an idiot.
Totally wrong.
Israel had been defeated and destroyed many times, such as by the Assyrians and Babylonians.
{...
cca. 720 BCE –
Kingdom of Israel conquered by
Neo-Assyrian Empire. Local population deported, becoming the
ten lost tribes, and the region is repopulated from other provinces of the Assyrian Empire.
...}
{...
...
4th century BCE
3rd century BCE
2nd century BCE
...
...}
The Romans invaded Palestine when the Jews were no longer in power at all, and restored them to power as puppets. For example, Herod was crowned king of the Jews, but was actually a Roman who simply converte
And after the
Bar Kokhba revolt , the Jews were totally eliminated from Palestine.
They went to what is now Saudi Arabia, and later helped Mohammad rise to power there.
If you are claiming there was a long standing Jewish kingdom on history, you would be wrong.
There was only a very fleeting dynasty that the Romans took advantage of to temporarily restore.
Jewish history is fairly insignificant really.
Jews did much better when they were not in charge, and instead concentrated on technological advancements instead of just killing people.
Can one of you bullshit propagandists show us a country or nation of "Arab Palestine" that existed in the last 700 years?
Who were its rulers, it's capital, currency, distinct language, etc. ?
Palestine is an invention circa 1967 after the Arabs got their asses kicked and decided to hijack an identity they never had.
Arab commentator acknowledges: “When the State of Israel was established in 1948, there was no state called ‘palestine’”
Kuwaiti Writer Abdullah Al-Hadlaq: Israel Is a Legitimate State, Not an Occupier; There Was No Palestine; I Support Israel-Gulf-U.S. Alliance to Annihilate Hizbullah
False.
Palestine was officially created and recognized by the Treaties of San Remo and Sevres, in 1920.
That can never change and is recorded history.
What would a Kuwaiti know about Palestine, nor would anyone believe a Kuwaite writer when the emir had all the good journalist killed.
Do you see “palestine” on this map of the Ottoman Empire, year 1900?
View attachment 339616
Yes, the map is labeled "Palestine". but you have cut off the label at the top.
Here is what a typical Ottoman Empire map of Palestine looks like.
Note the label "Palestine" at the top.
You’re not very good at this: Nowhere in the map is there an administrative unit named “palestine.” No such place existed.
That is the whole point.
It is the REGION that was always called Palestine, and it was not until 1920 that it was made into an independent country, as a federation of the little tribal areas inside of it.
That is the way countries are always formed.
German was 16 separate states until confederation.
{... Prussia and the other
states in Northern and Central
Germany united as a
federal state, the North
German Federation, on July 1, 1867 ...}
There was no Germany before that, just the name of the region.
Palestine is a European name, like Terra Sancta. It wasn‘t a Middle Eastern name. It’s an English word, anglicized from the Roman name “palaestina” imposed on Jews, referring to Jews’ Philistine foes from the Greek world.
Neither the map I posted nor the map you posted has a political entity named “palestine.” It didn’t exist in the Middle East until Britain nicknamed the Mandate “palestine“ which ceased to exist with Israeli statehood.
Renowned Middle East historian Bernard Lewis further explains...
View attachment 339656
The name Palestine is NOT even remotely Roman or modern, but ancient and is referenced by Egyptians and Greeks before 2000 BC.
Sure it is not referenced as a country as much as a region, but it also does come from the names of specific countries in the Land of Canaan, like Filestia and Philistina.
And while your quoted material is correct that the region Palestine was to be liberated as an independent country in return for Arab help against the Ottoman Empire, there was no Israel or even a significant Jewish presence in Palestine at the time.
So clearly then the immigration of European Jews from 1930 onward, as well as the UN dividing Palestine into 55% Israel, was totally illegal. It is in violation of the Treaties of San Remo and Sevres,
And even if one were to recognize Israeli statehood, that would not at all alter the previous and superior claim of Palestine to the other 45% of the Palestine of the British Mandate for Palestine.
The UN would have no right or authority to dissolve the previous claim.
Nor did it.
The UN intended for a 2 state solution, which Israel is in violation of.
Palestine is not referenced in Egyptian records nor in Greek records. Greeks called the country Judea, signifying land of the Jews.
Palestine comes from Roman usage ⤵
View attachment 339670
Totally wrong.
There are lots of ancient Geek and Egyptian references to Palestine.
{...
The first clear use of the term Palestine to refer to the entire area between
Phoenicia and
Egypt was in 5th century BCE
Ancient Greece,
[7][8] when
Herodotus wrote of a "district of Syria, called
Palaistinê" (
Ancient Greek: Συρίη ἡ Παλαιστίνη καλεομένη)
[9] in
The Histories, which included the
Judean mountains and the
Jordan Rift Valley.
[10][ii] Approximately a century later,
Aristotle used a similar definition for the region in
Meteorology, in which he included the
Dead Sea.
[12] Later Greek writers such as
Polemon and
Pausanias also used the term to refer to the same region, which was followed by Roman writers such as
Ovid,
Tibullus,
Pomponius Mela,
Pliny the Elder,
Dio Chrysostom,
Statius,
Plutarch as well as Roman Judean writers
Philo of Alexandria and
Josephus.
[13][14] The term was first used to denote an official province in c. 135 CE, when the
Roman authorities, following the suppression of the
Bar Kokhba Revolt, combined
Iudaea Province with
Galilee and the
Paralia to form "
Syria Palaestina". There is
circumstantial evidence linking
Hadrian with the name change,
[15] but the precise date is not certain
[15] and the assertion of some scholars that the name change was intended "to complete the dissociation with Judaea"
[16] is disputed.
[17]
The term is generally accepted to be a translation of the Biblical name
Peleshet (פלשת
Pəlésheth, usually transliterated as
Philistia). The term and its derivates are used more than 250 times in
Masoretic-derived versions of the
Hebrew Bible, of which 10 uses are in the
Torah, with undefined boundaries, and almost 200 of the remaining references are in the
Book of Judges and the
Books of Samuel.
[3][4][13][18] The term is rarely used in the
Septuagint, which used a transliteration
Land of Phylistieim (
Γῆ τῶν Φυλιστιείμ) different from the contemporary Greek place name
Palaistínē (
Παλαιστίνη).
[17]
The Septuagint instead used the term "allophuloi" (άλλόφυλοι, "other nations") throughout the Books of Judges and Samuel,
[19][20] such that the term "Philistines" has been interpreted to mean "non-Israelites of the Promised Land" when used in the context of Samson, Saul and David,
[21] and Rabbinic sources explain that these peoples were different from the Philistines of the
Book of Genesis.
[22]
...}
en.wikipedia.org
And they clearly are referring to the Philistines, not Israelites.
www.cjpme.org
