Skylar
Diamond Member
- Jul 5, 2014
- 54,242
- 16,467
- 2,250
Why then has gun crime gone DOWN since handguns were banned? Why does Britian have 1/4 our murder rate? If more guns mean less crime.....why did less guns mean less crime?
And you realize that the UK and US measure 'violent crime' very differently. With 'violent crime' as measured by the FBI being murder and nonnegligent manslaughter, forcible rape, robbery, and aggravated assault. While 'violent crime' in the UK includes crimes against the person,” including simple assaults, all robberies, and all sexual offenses.
With only 1 in 4 of the sexual offenses listed in British violent crime stats being forcible rapes. Where *all* sexual offenses listed in FBI violent crime states being forcible rapes.
It goes on as you look at what Britian is actually measuring. With only 1/2 of 'violent crime' in Britian involving any injury. In Britain, simple harassment would be considered a violent crime. Possessing a knife when commiting a crime is considered a violent crime. Not using the knife. Simply having it on you. Causing public alarm would be considered a violent crime.
Where violent crime in the US remains only murder and non-negligent manslaughter, forcible rape, robbery, and aggravated assault.
Hmmmm....if they confiscated guns...why are gun crime and homicides up in Britain....they don't even have obama releasing felons, letting in drug gangs, and reducing gun crime prosecutions....
From Thursday, January 21, 2016......
Homicides in England and Wales up 14%
The police-recorded crime figures include a 9% rise in knife crime and a 4% rise in gun crime, which are thought to reflect a rise in gang violence largely in London and Manchester.
The rise in gun crime is the first recorded for eight years and includes a 10% rise in London.
The official statisticians say that a 36% rise in sexual offences, including the highest number of rapes since 2003 – at 33,341 – reflect a greater willingness of victims to come forward to report such crimes rather than a real surge in attacks.
If more guns equal less crime, why does Britian have fewer guns.....but a fraction of our murder and gun homicide? With 1/4 the murder and 1/60th the gun homicide?
How high would Britian's gun violence have to rise before it approached even half of what we have now?
And your solution is MORE guns? Why would they ever want to do that?
Britain confiscated their guns and only allow a few lucky people to have hunting shotguns.....and their gun murder rate remained the same, and their violence rate went sky high....
Hand gun were largely made illegal in 1997. Violence rates declined.
With 1/60th the gun violence deaths and 1/4 the murder rates that we have here.....why would they want more guns?
First...
Again....can you explain why gun murder in the United States has been going down as more Americans own and carry guns? in 2013 there were 320,000,000 guns in private hands....in 2014 there are now 357 million guns in private hands.....our gun murder rate has been going down steadily...as has our gun accident rate....
Please explain......
Expanded Homicide Data Table 8
And here is the FBI table 8……it is a great table because it goes back4 years to show the rates of decrease….
2014 table…..
Expanded Homicide Data Table 8
From 2014…..and I added 2011……
2006
Expanded Homicide Data Table 8
2006 fbi table 8
Murder by firearm….
2006-- 10,225
2007 10,129
2008-- 9,528
2009-- 9,199
2010- 8,874
2011-- 8,653
2012-- 8,897
2013-- 8,454
2014-- 8,124
Again, the guns were confiscated in 1997. Why then are you starting in 2006?