Just look at the dem one percenters begging to pay more in taxes. Its so touching.
True. Idiot. Keep voting for the greedy a-hole megarich, hater dupe. MY party doesn't lie, these are neutral stats, dupe. Can you spot the Problem, DUH....:
The Demise of the American Middle Class In Numbers.
Over the past 30 years the American dream has gradually disappeared. The process was slow, so most people didn’t notice. They just worked a few more hours, borrowed a little more and cut back on non-essentials. But looking at the numbers and comparing them over long time periods, it is obvious that things have changed drastically. Here are the details:
1. WORKERS PRODUCE MORE BUT THE GAINS GO TO BUSINESS.
Over the past 63 years worker productivity has grown by 2.0% per year.
But after 1980, workers received a smaller share every year. Labor’s share of income (1992 = 100%):
1950 = 101%
1960 = 105%
1970 = 105%
1980 = 105% – Reagan
1990 = 100%
2000 = 96%
2007 = 92%
A 13% drop since 1980
2. THE TOP 10% GET A LARGER SHARE.
Share of National Income going to Top 10%:
1950 = 35%
1960 = 34%
1970 = 34%
1980 = 34% – Reagan
1990 = 40%
2000 = 47%
2007 = 50%
An increase of 16% since Reagan.
3. WORKERS COMPENSATED FOR THE LOSS OF INCOME BY SPENDING THEIR SAVINGS.
The savings Rose up to Reagan and fell during and after.
1950 = 6.0%
1960 = 7.0%
1970 = 8.5%
1980 = 10.0% – Reagan
1982 = 11.2% – Peak
1990 = 7.0%
2000 = 2.0%
2006 = -1.1% (Negative = withdrawing from savings)
A 12.3% drop after Reagan.
4. WORKERS ALSO BORROWED TO MAKE UP FOR THE LOSS.
Household Debt as percentage of GDP:
1965 = 46%
1970 = 45%
1980 = 50% – Reagan
1990 = 61%
2000 = 69%
2007 = 95%
A 45% increase after 1980.
5. SO THE GAP BETWEEN THE RICHEST AND THE POOREST HAS GROWN.
Gap Between the Share of Capital Income earned by the top 1%
and the bottom 80%:
1980 = 10%
2003 = 56%
A 5.6 times increase.
6. AND THE AMERICAN DREAM IS GONE.
The Probably of Moving Up from the Bottom 40% to the Top 40%:
1945 = 12%
1958 = 6%
1990 = 3%
2000 = 2%
A 10% Decrease.
Links:
1 =
ftp://ftp.bls.gov/pub/special.requests/pf/totalf1.txt
1 =
https://www.clevelandfed.org/Research/PolicyDis/No7Nov04.pdf
1 =
http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_Zh1bveXc8rA/SuddUhLWUaI/AAAAAAAAA7M/iU2gefk317M/s1600-h/Clipboard01.jpg
2 –
http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/blog/09/04/27/CongratulationstoEmmanuelSaez/
3 =
http://www.demos.org/inequality/images/charts/uspersonalsaving_thumb.gif
3 =
http://www.bea.gov/national/nipaweb/TableView.asp?SelectedTable=58&Freq=Qtr&FirstYear=2008&LastYear=2010
4 =
http://www.prudentbear.com/index.php/household-sector-debt-of-gdp
4 =
http://www.federalreserve.gov/releases/z1/current/
5/6 =
http://www.businessinsider.com/15-charts-about-wealth-and-inequality-in-america-2010-4?slop=1#slideshow-start
Overview =
http://www.ourfuture.org/blog-entry/2010062415/reagan-revolution-home-roost-charts
That's because you don't have the mentality that everyone else's money doesn't belong to them.
Do you think that it's OK for the rich to pay a less percentage of their total income toward taxes than you do?
The real question is ... are you willing to listen to a logical argument, even when it disagrees with your position?
If so, I'd be shocked .... but, here we go.
You have thrown up a pile of statistics hoping to overwhelm with quantity, rather than convince with quality.
a) You have cited statistics that discuss the "share" of the economy for the workers.
b) You cite that the 'workers' have gotten a smaller share of the income over a given period of time.
c) By your own admission, you somehow believe that workers should receive a commensurate share of the market based, not on contribution, but rather, on effort.
d) You conveniently choose to assign all productivity increases to the actions of the worker. Simply ... not logical.
e) Your 'figures' do not allow for automation or efficiency. Either of these factors would increase the productivity, without increasing the effort of the workers. In fact, the worker contribution would actually be less.
f) You fail to acknowledge that the investor deserves compensation for the risk ... and for the loss of products or services that invested money could have purchased.
g) You fail to acknowledge that workers provide a product - their labor - for which they are compensated. They have no intrinsic right to any profits of the product produced.
h) You fail to acknowledge that the American workforce has become fat and lazy - expecting maximum compensation for minimum effort.
i) You have perverted the very concept of the 'American Dream'. The American Dream was never to have a comfortable existence by doing the same ol' job every day. Like everything else in life, if you do the same thing every day, you're going to get the same return every day.
The 'American Dream' was always that you could, with effort, intelligence, and luck, be able to improve your position in life. How many of these workers have tried to start their own business? How many have increased their education? How many have put their ass --- and everything else they own --- on the line because they have the next Great Idea?
Now, back to the central point of your attack - which you neatly camouflaged in non-applicable statistics.
"Do you think that it's OK for the rich to pay a less percentage of their total income toward taxes than you do? Your question, of course, presumes that just because the rich have money, you somehow have a right to some of it. Further, you assume that they have an inherent responsibility to care for others, and by damn, if they aren't going to do it .. then, you will force it on them!!
In your interest of equality, I'm curious --- do you really apply that to everybody? Does everybody who drives that one mile of road in front of your house pay the same for it? Do those who have children in the local school pay for it, while those of who do not, go free? I suspect you aren't the least be interested in equality, but rather, in making sure you get some of what you couldn't make for yourself. Simply - you want to steal it.
I presume, then, it is safe to say, that you somehow believe that the rich receive more government assistance than the lower or middle classes, and therefore, it is only appropriate that they pay a larger fee for it. I'm curious - what about those who pay nothing? Should we deny them government services because they don't pay for them?
See? Your argument fails the logic test ...