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The particular class that produces might be irrelevant BUT the assertion that the middle class is disappearing onto a higher class is an awfully big assertion that I think you cannot show.
The relevance of the middle class is not that they do the ‘frontline work.’ The relevance is that they will be the majority in any healthy and free economy. We cannot all be wealthy in a capitalist economy – that is a fact as the prices of products will adjust to the ability of those to pay for them. Without a strong middle class you will end up with a few wealthy and a lot of poor. Even worse, the problem tends to make the situation even worse – fewer that can buy created products -> lower demand -> fewer workers -> fewer that can buy created products.
Red:
Well, "I" can't, but that is exactly what Pew's December 2015 research indicates. (I referenced the same data back at post #17.)
You can see just as well as I can what the images above show. In the report, Pew expressly makes the two following remarks in discussing what the charts show:
- While the share of U.S. adults living in both upper- and lower-income households rose alongside the declining share in the middle from 1971 to 2015, the share in the upper-income tier grew more.
- Over the same period, however, the nation’s aggregate household income has substantially shifted from middle-income to upper-income households, driven by the growing size of the upper-income tier and more rapid gains in income at the top.
I realize that the text on the graphs is somewhat confusing, along with both images being grouped together, may be somewhat confusing, and certainly not definitive, for the top chart depicts (at a high level) headcount apportionments of who is and is not lower, middle and upper income. The lower chart shows what share of income accrues to members of each income group. The question then is this:
- Seeing as it's clear that during the noted time period, the relative size of the middle class shrank, and the share of income going to upper income households grew, did the members of the middle class move to the upper income group or the lower income group?
Well, that's exactly the question the report answers. They do so with the following chart that shows us where those formerly middle class people went, and where they went is to the ranks of upper income.
Pew discuss the chart above:
- The share of American adults living in middle-income households has fallen from 61% in 1971 to 50% in 2015.
- The share living in the upper-income tier rose from 14% to 21% over the same period.
- Meanwhile, the share in the lower-income tier increased from 25% to 29%.
- Notably, the 7 percentage point increase in the share at the top is nearly double the 4 percentage point increase at the bottom.
So while I personally can't show that the middle class' shrinkage is attributable to formerly middle class folks becoming upper income, Pew clearly has shown exactly that. Sure, some of the middle class population became lower income, but more of them became upper income.
Having established that the larger share of formerly middle class folks became upper income than became lower income, the next thing one might want to know is which (formerly) middle class workers moved into the upper income group and which of them moved into the lower income group?
Pew answers that question in another report.with regard to industries. (click on the chart pic below to access the article and chart on Pew's site.) Right in line with the informatino above, we see that the drop in middle class workers headcount (as a percentage of the population overall) is accounted for by a much larger increase in upper income workers than that of lower income workers.

Looking at the information above, one has to next ask: is "the work" still being performed? Well, obviously people are still working,
the unemployment rate isn't dramatically different enough now from what it was in 1971, and none of the departure from the the middle class is unaccounted for, which indicates that a meaningful overall lost of jobs is what happened. So, yes, "the work" is still happening.
Blue:
Taken together, the information from the two Pew reports referenced above shows that while the number of folks who can be labelled "middle class" has decreased, but that's not a bad thing because more of them became upper income than became lower income. Moreover, since net unemployment is comparable over time, though slightly higher at the end of 2014 than it was in 1971, the decline in the size of the middle class isn't explainable purely by job loss, particularly given that looking at the difference in 1970s unemployment among the populace is more than made up for by the portion of the populace that has moved from being middle class to being upper income.
So, if the middle have gotten richer and the work is still happening, what must have been the relevance of the middle class? Only that in the past they performed the lion's share of the actual work. Now, they still do, but a larger share of the overall quantity of work to be done is performed by folks who are upper income. I don't have a problem with that. Why should I? What's going to happen other that at some point enough lower-upper income folks will necessarily have to be deemed middle class once again? And what will that really indicate? It'll indicate that the median income figure has risen, and then "poof," the middle class will have all but instantly grown. (Of course, it won't be instant, but you surely know what I mean.)
And you know what? The minute that happens, whoever is President, and whatever their party, will equally instantly be "on about" how they resurrected/grew the middle class. Indeed, given what I found in the Pew reports, along with the fact that the next census will be in 2020, assuming the trends we see now continue -- that is, little or nothing s/he does meaningfully improves or worsens things -- whoever is the next President will get to make that claim, and make it they will.
Purple:
In some model or world, yes, one can, but that's clearly not what's been happening in our world. I'm not suggesting that what you wrote in purple text isn't consistent with "the theory." Heck, but for having looked for evidence that theory has been panning out or not, I would have thought the same thing, and the only thing that made me look was the onus I felt to get more informed that I already was before opening this thread.
Green:
With regard to the pattern of events shown above, that is clearly not what's happening. Were the pattern one of more middle class folks becoming lower income, I'd concur that the sequence you described is what's wrong the the observed decline in the size of the middle class.
If one wants to ask "could the shrinkage of the middle class at some point result from more folks becoming lower income?", I'd say sure it could happen. Given where things stand right now, and the trend that's been happening over the past 40 years, that could still happen because there are still enough folks in the middle class for the trend to shift without affecting the quantity of folks in the upper income class.
Is 40 years long enough to call something a "trend" (as go economics)? Yes. Is it so long that the trend cannot change? No, but where are the indicators that the directional thrust of a 40 year trend is or will certainly (most likely), dramatically, and quickly change? I don't see any.
(I know you,
FA_Q2 , aren't generally given to doing so, but for the benefit of the "peanut gallery" members who are, don't reply to me with no credible facts and sources, or a bunch of biased sources.)
Why? You assume that a business has some moral obligation or code to follow. That is false – it has a singular purpose and that is to produce a profit (and stay solvent). Because one person may believe that manufacturing should be encouraged here in the US does not mean that they should ignore the CURRENT policies and situations. He is under no obligation to move his companies over here and see them go out of business just because he pushes policy that makes that proposition POSSIBLE.
Right now, there are many things that simply are not profitable here and starting a business venture would be counterproductive. What we need to do is create a climate that does the opposite – a climate that encourages businesses to produce products with American workers rather than Chinese ones.
Brown:
Actually, I assume individuals, not businesses, have that onus. I'm not annoyed merely because Mr. Trump's manufacturing happens in Mexico and China. My outrage with Mr. Trump is his "it's okay for him to offshore production, but not for others" attitude.
What's especially interesting from the Breitbart article is that what Mr. Trump is doing when he speaks of what is presumably the national debt (the $18 trillion figure) in the context of manufacturing goods overseas, is conflating the national debt with the trade imbalance. I certainly expect a U.S. Presidential candidate to (1) know the difference between the two and (2) not confuse voters by referencing the deficit while speaking about a matter that contributes to the trade imbalance. Yet that's exactly what he did when he said,
"We owe $18 trillion. It’s going to be — very soon going to be $20 trillion that we owe, okay? We have to start creating jobs. We have to start creating wealth. Look, we all go to good schools. I go to great schools. You go to great [schools.] You don’t have to be even a smart — you don’t have to be the great student to know, when Ford builds this massive plant to build cars, and then they bring them back into our country, no tax."
Re: the bold italicized text just above, apparently one must be a better study of economics than was Mr. Trump to know that the trade deficit does not contribute to the national debt. I don't know what Mr. Trump did in the good school he went to, but learn economics clearly wasn't it. Perhaps he copied answers from the person seated next to him? I don't know, but I wouldn't put it past him to have done so. Perhaps he just memorized "stuff" for the test, but didn't really learn it? Lots of folks do that as well.