Rigby5
Diamond Member
"violations of free speech"? By the government? Because that's what the 1st Amendment applies to......NOT private companies.Particuarly with search engines.....at one time it was primarily google that was guilty of this....but now its spreading....more and more controversial topics are being banned and I often get my online connection interuppted when I try and copy controversial topics.......this effort to curb free speech is massive and corporate driven
Originally yes, the 1st amendment started as only a restriction on the federal government.
After the 14th amendment, "incorporation" caused restriction against the federal government to also apply to state and local government.
Does that mean private companies can not discriminate against free speech?
Nope.
Freedom of political expression is one of those inherent, individual rights that are infinite, so then enumerable.
You are not really supposed to discriminate against anyone for any reason, but discrimination over political expression amounts to treason in a democratic republic.
Your mistake is assuming that rights are created or granted by the Bill of Rights.
They aren't.
It has to be the other way around.
The right has to already exist inherently or else you would not have the authority to put it into the bill of rights.
But rights are infinite, so they can not all be mentioned the bill of rights anyway.
The only time anyone looks at the Bill of Rights is to use the "Penumbra Effect" to see if there other implied rights we have not sufficiently regarded.