I understand now, that you have a theory as to why the Bible might say that the hare chews cud, but the fact remains that the hare does not, in fact, chew cud--correct?
Until your theory is proven (and the burden of this proof is now fully upon you) to be the case in fact, or is accepted as valid by those you pose this question to (i.e. "Has the Bible ever been proven wrong?" ), it is not applicable. At that point, and not before, will your theory be relevent to the question, "Has the Bible ever been proven wrong?"
So, "...the hare, because he cheweth the cud,..." is a statement of erroneous fact, asserted in the Bible (for any number of theoretical reasons you might manufacture); thus, in-so-far as the Bible asserts that the hare chews cud, the Bible is proven wrong.