Shusha
Gold Member
- Dec 14, 2015
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Because Israel has been actively committed to preserving Arab Palestinian self-determination.Why is the native population (non-Israeli citizen) under military law instead of Israeli civil law then?
Mostly for convenience. There are plenty of Israeli High Court documents which specifically reject that Israel has actually ceded territory, rather than being open to ceding territory.Why does the Israeli High Court refer to it as occupied territory?
Twisted perversion of international law that demonstrates a uniquely applied version of "international law" only to Israel.Why does international law consider it occupied territory?