So if someone may want you to do something later, it is acceptable for force them to do that thing now? Or is that only true of married couples?
Say, chances are my spouse will be hungry later. Is it OK for me to force feed them now, even if they don't want to eat?
The chances are my spouse will want to drink alcohol later. Is it OK for me to force them to drink liquor now, even if they do not want to?
It's odd that you say others don't understand basic legal terms, then admit less than half an hour later that it is, in fact, rape for a person to force their spouse to have sex against their will. I would also submit that your understanding of human psychology is flawed.
You still fail to understand what "rape" actually is. You also just lied, because I did not "admit" that "marital rape" exists anywhere. Again, I never said that it is moral to force your spouse to do something, and I certainly never said that spousal abuse doesn't exist. It is certainly possible to assault your spouse, and that is indeed a crime, but "rape" is all about intent and power, and marriage negates both of those things.
If I decide to rape some stranger because they won't give me the time of day, the chances of me of actually achieving consensual sex with that person at any point is practically zero(baring some apocalypse), even if I decide not to rape them.
"Marital rape" would be comparable to your examples if you had an STD and you forcibly infected your spouse when they were stupid enough to marry someone with an STD(or stay married to someone who cheated on them and contracted an STD by doing so), because both of your examples have potential negatives beyond simply forcing your spouse to do something that they normally do but don't want to do at the moment, but a husband or wife violating the trust and/or privacy of their spouse in a purely sexual manner is not a crime.