- Apr 5, 2010
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Of course it’s part of the law. Buying and corrupt influence mean things and you are ignoring the plain language.Of course it has to be contingent. Otherwise he’s not paying for anything. Buying something means there’s an agreement. There is no agreement.Show me where he's made the payment contingent on them voting.And you’ve failed to provide any reason to suspect he’s paying them to do anything.Failed to provide sufficient cause to suspect any corrupt influence has been exerted.So he doesn't actually know how they'll vote.So the answer is that Bloomberg doesn't know how anyone's going to vote.How does he know how they will vote?Refusing to answer the question again.How does Bloomberg know who they will vote for?They could also sprout antlers and fart unicorn dust.
They could. Frankly, it would make about as much sense for anyone voting for Trump.
They are getting their fines paid so they CAN vote, and they know who is paying the fines for them, and they know who said person supports.
None of which compels them to vote for that person.
The reality is, the REpublicans are the ones who don't want ex-felons to vote because they know they will vote Democratic. It's just another form of voter suppression.
Bullshit.
And the only reason Bloomie is paying their fines and restitution is because he knows they will vote democrat, and he's paying for it.
Then why buy their voting rights back?
Such a snowflake.
He knows how most of them will vote, that's why he's buying their vote.
And again you use the term snowflake wrong, twat.
A snowflake refuses to answer questions because they’re too scared of the implications of the answers.
He doesn't have to know how every single one votes, he just knows they are more likely to vote for Biden because Republicans are always harder on criminals.
What am I scared of?
Do you agree that criminals are more likely to vote for Democrats? Why so?
Is it because they are usually weak on crime?
Sure, felons are more likely to vote Democratic, but as you said that may very well be because of policy disagreements which is certainly not Bloomberg's fault, therefore he cannot be held liable for the actions of Republicans.
As we can see, this isn't about criminality, it's about Republican fear of being voted out of office.
He assumes they will vote democrat, otherwise why is he paying for them to vote?
No, it's about Bloomberg potentially breaking the law trying to buy votes for Democrats.
And of course, as always, go fuck yourself with Kamala's extra large dildo.
How can he be accused of buying votes if he doesn't know who they're voting for?
He can't. You're entire accusation crumbles.
He's betting on them voting democrat, why else would he pay for them to get their voting rights back?
Again, why is he paying for them to be able to vote?
He can “bet on” whatever he wants. Given he doesn’t know who is voting for who, it cannot be considered buying votes.
His intent is for them to vote for Biden. Most of them will. That's a plausible chain showing corrupting influence on their vote, and that is what the Statue prohibits.
For starters, you can't prove intent. Second, you can't prove influence. Third, you can't prove CORRUPT influence.
This is just Republicans shitting their pants because they thought they were going to prevent people from voting and now that they might be able to, are worried that those people are going to be pissed at them.
proving intent is a major component of any criminal prosecution. proving influence is part of bribery prosecutions, and proving it is corrupt is part of the whole fighting corruption thing.
And you have no evidence of intent. No evidence of influence. No evidence of corruption.
And that's why they have to investigate.
No predicate for investigation.
Plenty of reason for an investigation. Motive, actions, money changing hands, voters being influenced due to it.
This is merely criminalizing political support for an opposing candidate. How very Stalin-esque of you.
Not support, paying money to get them to vote for your candidate.
Other than he's paying them to do something, i.e. vote?
You can't which is why you cannot accuse him of paying them to do something.
He's paying for them to vote, it doesn't have to be contingent, all it has to be is influence according to the Election law in question.
Him supporting Biden and his paying for their ballot isn't influence?
If you weren’t so committed to this nonsense, you’d agree.
You are imposing limitations that are not part of the law. Any form of monetary compensation for action doesn't have to include an agreement written in blood.
I pay for your family to go on vacation, you give me that juicy government contract, wink wink, nudge nudge.
Compensation for an action requires SOME form of agreement and so far you’ve provided zero reason to believe there is any agreement.
The agreement doesn't have to be written down on verbal, it can be implied. Are you saying any corruption conviction for quid pro quo requires written evidence or even verbal evidence, and cannot deduce such understanding from the situation as described?