Black bold:
No it does not. You can be too lazy to present evidence to support your assertion, but don't expect anyone to accept your assertions/conclusions merely because you say they are so.
Prosecutor said publicly she was going to get justice for the dead criminal and put the officers in jail, before any investigation was done, she
pushed crap through the grand jury to get indictments, obtained
ZERO convictions.
So tell us hero, is she just totally incompetent or was she trying to appease the public, namely BLM?
Red:
Okay...I had no idea I was conversing with a jurisprudential theory neophyte, but I know that now.
The "support" you offer for your claim that public opinion determines whether a prosecutor brings charges against someone is:
- The prosecutor stated she would get justice --> Of course the prosecutor said that. Getting justice is what they are paid to do. Ever prosecutor says that.
- The prosecutor "pushed crap through the grand jury to get indictments --> You don't know much about the grand jury process. The only people in grand jury proceedings, which are sealed, are the jurors, the prosecutor(s) and the witnesses the prosecutor chooses to call. A prosecutor presents only the evidence that will persuade the grand jury to indict. There is nobody there presenting anything that indicates the charges should not be levied. Prosecutors who cannot get indictments from grand juries may as well not be prosecutors. Just how hard do you think it is to get a grand jury to not even unanimously say, "Yes, there's enough evidence to bring the case to trial," when the only information they are given is the prosecution's evidence?
- Obtaining no conviction --> Obtaining no conviction is not an indication of whether prosecutors brought the charges to propitiate public opinion. It is an indication of whether the defense presented a stronger case at the criminal trial than did the prosecution. A "not guilty" verdict indicates that the jury did not construe the prosecution as having successfully shown that the accused person, beyond a reasonable doubt, did (actus rea) and, where applicable thought (mens rea), as the prosecutor claimed and attempted to show. Actually obtaining a conviction (or not) has nothing to do with the reason why a prosecutor will bring charges other than the fact that s/he won't bring charges if s/he doesn't believe s/he can obtain one; however, his/her believing that so is no indication of whether it will be so. Every single case in which the accused person was found not guilty is proof of that.
Blue:
That the prosecutor was trying to appease the public -- in any sense other than the broad one of doing their duty as prosecutors -- is the claim you made, and I'm not about to prove it for you because I don't agree with it. It's a claim you have yet to show that appeasement of public sentiment, even in the specific instance of the Baltimore 6 prosecutor, determines whether prosecutors bring charges. Were public opinion a key driver to whether to bring charges, Hillary Clinton would have been charged in connection with "email-gate."
Your suggestion that public opinion determines whether one is charged or not charged with a crime is to say essentially that our legal system consists mainly of kangaroo courts, jurisprudential theory, practice, and proceedings. Were public opinion the determining factor in whether prosecutors levy charges, there'd be no need for our Constitutional amendment guaranteeing due process. We could just return to having "witch trials" and "witch hunts" because that's all our legal system would be were we to conduct the legal process based on popular public opinion.
We've had that sort of "justice" at more than a few points in our infamous past dating from the Salem Witch Trials to the myriad miscarriages of justice against blacks throughout the 19th and 20th centuries. I'd just as soon we not open the 21st century with more of the same. From all our current ills, we surely have evolved beyond that as a people.