Well in a lot of ways from certain traditions, to architecture, to literature, to rhetoric, to how Jesus was portrayed and how certain events were portrayed. We must remember that the first Christians were the disciples themselves and the various others who followed them. These were Jews who believed that Jesus was a Jew, who came on behalf of the Jews, to fulfill Jewish Messianic prophecies. They were highly apocalyptic and they believed that the path to righteousness with God was to follow the Law. By the time of Constantine, the church had and continued to experience anti-semitic viewpoints, the depiction of Jesus had changed to having Him come for all mankind instead of just the Jews, the apocalyptic tradition had been heavily glossed over, and the path to righteousness with God had become Paul's doctrine of Grace.
How did
that happen?
Well that's a very long story, and my guess is that you know a great deal of it already. We also have to keep in mind that it was Paul who was the most successful at spreading Christianity in the early church. Paul was a Jew, but he was also a Roman and he was converting Gentiles (Romans) so the message had to accessible and impactful for them and it had to appeal to them in a way that would be accepted from a Roman viewpoint.
An example of this would be the depiction of the trial of jesus before Pilate. This is heavily Romanized in order to appeal to a Gentile population. The portrayals of Pilate going to such lengths to save Jesus and making a show of washing his hands of it, and the Jews screaming "
His blood be upon us and our children." after Pilate calls Jesus a righteous man. (Matt. 27:24-25, NIV). Pffft...give me a break. Pilate wouldn't have given two shits about Jesus. He was just the headache of the day. Pilate would probably have crucified Jesus, went to have a nice breakfast, made love to his wife, took a pleasant afternoon nap, and it wouldn't have crossed his mind further. That was thrown in there to appeal to Gentiles and instead cast responsibility upon the Jews as an entire community as evidenced by the addition of "
....and our children". The author is making the point that all Jews are to blame. I highly doubt that is something that Peter, John, or even Paul, being Jews themselves, would have agreed with or made a central point of their teaching.
Another example would be the apocalyptic tradition. The disciples and especially Paul were apocalypticists. They believed the Kingdom of God was at hand. Jesus had fulfilled the Messianic prophecies, the first would be last and the last would be first. It was time! It was here! Revelation, even being written so much later, upheld that tradition. It was a great Judeo-Christian apocalypse that said just those things. The time is at hand! Rome will fall. Down with Caesar! Ok what do you do with that book and that tradition when suddenly Rome
IS the church and the church
IS Roman? You can't have books in your set of scripture that says '
down with Caesar, down with Rome' when the church
IS Rome. So what do you do? You change the meaning and insist that author meant something else. You smooth out and gloss over the apocalyptic tradition
that was absolutely vital to the beliefs and early teachings of the earliest Christians.
So there's a couple examples. I could go on but this post is long enough as it is and I think that you, being a knowledgeable and reasonable person, are already aware of these things anyhow. So there you go.