By your definition, so does the
attraction to minors.
The
attraction hurts no one, it is acting on that attraction that causes harm.
But you have stipulated that to you, the ATTRACTION is a mental illness, one I agree with.
So again I pose the question:
If it is possible to have a mental illness that causes a person to be attracted to a minor...is it equally possible for the attraction to the same sex to also be caused by a mental illness?
No, it doesn't.
An attraction to children is harmful to the pedophile whether he acts on it or not.
How?
I'm really putting you on the spot here for a lengthy reply, so I'll give you more than a one work question.
Homosexuality was once believed to be a mental illness or genetic disease, and the same claim was made...that being a homosexual, having homosexual attraction was harmful to the homosexual whether he/she acted on it or not.
Until 1973, homosexuality was diagnosed as a mental illness.
The DoD classified it as a mental illness until 2001.
Was it suddenly it was not harmful?
Did the fact that society began accepting homosexuality reduce the amount of harm?
So, again, if society accepts pedophilia, will the attraction alone suddenly be no longer harmful to the pedophile?
Or will it have it never been harmful?
Or is it still harmful even if society accepts it?
I'm just showing you why this line of reasoning fails.