Meriweather
Not all who wander are lost
- Oct 21, 2014
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I have been traveling, but now I can get back to this. Let's take a look at some Bible passages. The first is Jeremiah 1:5; the second is Luke 1:47, 49 where Mary is speaking to Elizabeth.Can you give a brief explanation of the immaculate conception?
“I knew you before I formed you in your mother's womb. Before you were born I set you apart and appointed you as my prophet to the nations.”
My Spirit rejoices in God my savior. The mighty one has done great things for me...
We should also look at the translations of Luke 1:28 which include "Full of grace"; "favored one"; and "highly favored one". Nuances are often lost in translating from one language to another. The original Greek uses the word
kecharitomene.
The root, commonly translated as 'grace' has the Greek meaning of a supernatural endowment by God. In other words, nothing Mary did in her life earned her grace, it was already given to her by God; it is His favor, His kindness. The suffix emphasizes this; that Mary was acted upon. The prefix determines the tense. It tells us that Mary had already been acted upon and that God's favor and grace was continuing.
Aren't God's actions perfect? Can sin--even original sin--prevail over God? Another questions is, How did Protestants come to drop this teaching? The Catholic Church is rooted in Greek, Latin, and even Aramaic. It is also steeped in tradition. The original Protestants were studying a book that had been translated into English (or any other common language). They lost both nuance and tradition. Meanwhile, Catholics insisted upon keeping the original nuances and tradition.
An interesting side note is the Orthodox do not acknowledge the Immaculate Conception...because...the Orthodox hold no belief in Original Sin. Protestants believe in Original Sin and insist Mary, by being human, was born with this sin.
I don't know that this qualifies as brief, but I gave it a try.