manifold
Diamond Member
- Banned
- #1
Lets assume hypothetically that a woman 'rapes' man and gets pregnant. To avoid getting side-tracked on the feasibility aspect, lets further assume that she knocked him out and bound him naked to a bed, then she milked his prostate, collected his sperm in a turkey baster and proceeded to inseminate herself.
Does the man have any right to demand an abortion and why?
Does the man have any right to demand an abortion and why?