- Mar 7, 2014
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Gay Americans now have the legal constitutional right to marriage equality, thus making it an illegal act of discrimination to deny them that right, but,
Kim Davis and others are claiming that since their disagreement with the establishment of that right is a religious disagreement,
they are entitled to a special status, a right of their own to be above the law....an atheist, for example, whose personal belief might also be that gays should not have that right, cannot make a legal claim to the same special status, despite having exactly the same opinion as Davis and all who claim their opinion is religion.How can the exact same opinion (or more precisely, actions on that opinion) be legal in one case and illegal in another, simply because of where the person claims the opinion comes from?
Is atheism a religion? No? Then the 1st Amendment just answered your question. You might want to brush up on the 9th Amendment too while you're at it..
So you're taking the position that the 1st Amendment grants a certain group of people the special status of being able to ignore laws that apply to everyone else, such as non-discrimination laws,
if those people claim they want to ignore those laws because their religion tells them to?
It actually grants all people the same.
Rights work like this. You can do whatever you like as long as you don't infringe on the rights of others.
This woman is infringing on the rights of others. They're not infringing on her rights.
She is using her position in government to attempt to force others to follow her religion. That's pretty close to a government establishing a religion.
Problem is that people seem to be able to ignore this. The only way they can't ignore it is if you make it inclusive of all rights, then they have to choose between rights or no rights, then they lose their guns.