This is a daunting topic because there are arguments at varying levels on both sides and it involves dealing with issues of real wealth or fiat wealth, and because it can be shown that not only the wealth of this nation but that of the entire Earth is finite, I prefer not to engage in such a diversionary discussion. For the purpose of the discussion at hand I am satisfied with the fact that in every recorded example of wealth distribution it is clearly shown that proportional disparity exists between the upper and lower economic classes. When one increases, the other decreases -- as is clearly the case in the current U.S. example.Myth: The Nation's wealth is a fixed amount, therefore the poor can only own what is not owned by the rich.
There is no evidence anywhere that when wealth increases for someone then poverty also increases for someone else.
That is what you are claiming and that is absurd.
Back it up with something other than rank rhetoric.
Every cent of the wealth I have was earned.
No one out there is poorer because I became wealthy.
You have no evidence.