The European Invention of Palestine

Admit it stoney

Cambridge University Press
In Ottoman times, no political entity called Palestine existed. After the collapse of the Ottoman Empire at the end of the First World War, European boundary makers began to take greater interest in defining territorial limits for Palestine. Only since the 1920s has Palestine had formally delimited boundaries, though these have remained subject to repeated change and a source of bitter dispute.
Palestine Boundaries 1833–1947 - Cambridge Archive Editions

Historian Bernard Lewis...
The adjective Palestinian is comparatively new. This, I need hardly remind you, is a region of ancient civilization and of deep-rooted and often complex identitites. But, Palestine was not one of them. People might identify themselves for various purposes, by religion, by descent, or by allegiance to a particular state or ruler, or, sometimes, locality. But, when they did it locally it was generally either the city and the immediate district or the larger province, so they would have been Jerusalemites or Jaffaites or Syrians, identifying province of Syria

The constitution or the formation of a political entity called Palestine which eventually gave rise to a nationality called Palestinian were lasting innovations of the British Mandate [1948]

For Arabs, the term Palestine was unacceptable...For Muslims it was alien and irrelevant but not abhorrent in the same way as it was to Jews. The main objection for them was that it seemed to assert a separate entity which politically conscious Arabs in Palestine and elsewhere denied. For them there was no such thing as a country called Palestine. The region which the British called Palestine was merely a separated part of a larger whole. For a long time organized and articulate Arab political opinion was virtually unanimous on this point.

The name Palestine had never been used by Jews, for whom the normal name of the country, from the time of the Exodus to the present day, was Eretz Israel.

Pulitzer Prize-Winning Writer Charles Krauthammer..
Israel is the very embodiment of Jewish continuity: It is the only nation on earth that inhabits the same land, bears the same name, speaks the same language, and worships the same God that it did 3,000 years ago. You dig the soil and you find pottery from Davidic times, coins from Bar Kokhba, and 2,000-year-old scrolls written in a script remarkably like the one that today advertises ice cream at the corner candy store.
 
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THE MAP IS NOW FOUND,SO YOU AND ALL THESE JEWISH APOLOGIST ARE NOW DEFEATED..I TRIED TO HELP YOU BUT LIKE MOST LIKE YOU ON HERE, HAVE FALLEN ON YOUR SWORD...O Stoney I'm SAD FOR THEE,TIME TO THROW AWAY YOUR BIBLE MATE.........IT DID YOU NO GOOD.....WELL DONE JOS AND TINMORE...TITANS BOTH.
Hysterical drivel.
 
Who or what is the JewishEncyclopedia.com ?
They wrote this;
The portion of Syria which was formerly the possession of the Israelites. It includes the whole of the country between the River Jordan and the Mediterranean as well as the country immediately to the east of the Jordan. The word represents the Greek form, Παλαιστίνη, of the Hebrew (Ex. xv. 14; Isa. xiv. 29, 31; Ps. lx. 10 [A. V. 8]), although in the Old Testament is applied only to the land of the Pelishtim (), or Philistines, and hence denotes merely the coast district south of Phenicia. It was the Greeks who began to denote the inland country as well by this term; such an application, by a foreign people, of the name of the coast to the interior is no rare phenomenon. As early as Herodotus, who is followed by other classical writers, as Ptolemy and Pliny, the phrase Συρίε ἡ Παλαιστίνη denotes both the littoral and the neighboring inland region (Judea and Palestine), as well as the entire interior as far as the Arabian desert. Josephus, however, usually limits the name to the land of the Philistines. In the course of time the term "Palestine" superseded the longer "Palestinian Syria," and it is used with this connotation by Josephus and Philo, while Vespasian officially designated the country as "Palestine" on the coins which he struck after the suppression of the Jewishinsurrection in 70 C.E., implying thereby the territory of the Jews. The name is used in this sense by Christian authors beginning with Jerome, as well as by the Jewish writers (), while the Arabic "Filasṭin" is more restricted in meaning, denoting only Judea and Samaria.

Read more: JewishEncyclopedia.com - PALESTINE:
Are they a credible source?

Palestine doesn't appear in the Hebrew Bible or Christian Bible. Israel appears 2000 times in the Bible.

You = PWNED. :clap2:
 
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After the Jews were expelled from Spain in 1492, some communities settled in Palestine.
Israel - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Wikipedia not exactly an authoritative source but thanks for the chuckle, dink :lol::clap2:

Sucks you never made it into high school, right? Estupido! :lol:

Eminent Historian Bernard Lewis...
The adjective Palestinian is comparatively new. This, I need hardly remind you, is a region of ancient civilization and of deep-rooted and often complex identitites. But, Palestine was not one of them. People might identify themselves for various purposes, by religion, by descent, or by allegiance to a particular state or ruler, or, sometimes, locality. But, when they did it locally it was generally either the city and the immediate district or the larger province, so they would have been Jerusalemites or Jaffaites or Syrians, identifying province of Syria

The constitution or the formation of a political entity called Palestine which eventually gave rise to a nationality called Palestinian were lasting innovations of the British Mandate [1948]

American Library Association
For more than four decades, Bernard Lewis has been one of the most respected scholars and prolific writers on the history and politics of the Middle East. In this compilation of more than 50 journal articles and essays, he displays the full range of his eloquence, knowledge, and insight regarding this pivotal and volatile region."
Oxford University Press: Faith and Power: Bernard Lewis

Cambridge University Press
In Ottoman times, no political entity called Palestine existed. After the collapse of the Ottoman Empire at the end of the First World War, European boundary makers began to take greater interest in defining territorial limits for Palestine. Only since the 1920s has Palestine had formally delimited boundaries, though these have remained subject to repeated change and a source of bitter dispute.
Palestine Boundaries 1833–1947 - Cambridge Archive Editions
 
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I note that this thread has devolved from a discussion about the topic to bitchfests between partisans.

Happens to pretty much every thread where the topic of Israel is at issue.
 
I note that this thread has devolved from a discussion about the topic to bitchfests between partisans.

Happens to pretty much every thread where the topic of Israel is at issue.

There are those who are here to torpedo any discussion of the issues.
 
After the Jews were expelled from Spain in 1492, some communities settled in Palestine.
Israel - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

I posted the same thing but I did not get it from Wikipedia.

Eminent Historian Bernard Lewis...:lol:
The adjective Palestinian is comparatively new. This, I need hardly remind you, is a region of ancient civilization and of deep-rooted and often complex identitites. But, Palestine was not one of them. People might identify themselves for various purposes, by religion, by descent, or by allegiance to a particular state or ruler, or, sometimes, locality. But, when they did it locally it was generally either the city and the immediate district or the larger province, so they would have been Jerusalemites or Jaffaites or Syrians, identifying province of Syria

The constitution or the formation of a political entity called Palestine which eventually gave rise to a nationality called Palestinian were lasting innovations of the British Mandate [1948]

For Arabs, the term Palestine was unacceptable...For Muslims it was alien and irrelevant but not abhorrent in the same way as it was to Jews. The main objection for them was that it seemed to assert a separate entity which politically conscious Arabs in Palestine and elsewhere denied. For them there was no such thing as a country called Palestine. The region which the British called Palestine was merely a separated part of a larger whole. For a long time organized and articulate Arab political opinion was virtually unanimous on this point.

The name Palestine had never been used by Jews, for whom the normal name of the country, from the time of the Exodus to the present day, was Eretz Israel.

American Library Association
For more than four decades, Bernard Lewis has been one of the most respected scholars and prolific writers on the history and politics of the Middle East. In this compilation of more than 50 journal articles and essays, he displays the full range of his eloquence, knowledge, and insight regarding this pivotal and volatile region."
Oxford University Press: Faith and Power: Bernard Lewis

Cambridge University Press:lol:
In Ottoman times, no political entity called Palestine existed. After the collapse of the Ottoman Empire at the end of the First World War, European boundary makers began to take greater interest in defining territorial limits for Palestine. Only since the 1920s has Palestine had formally delimited boundaries, though these have remained subject to repeated change and a source of bitter dispute.
Palestine Boundaries 1833–1947 - Cambridge Archive Editions

 
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Israel was invented by Europe

Israel is referenced 2000 times in the Bible. The Bible was invented by Europeans? You're not the sharpest knife in the drawer
 
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Who or what is the JewishEncyclopedia.com ?
They wrote this;
The portion of Syria which was formerly the possession of the Israelites. It includes the whole of the country between the River Jordan and the Mediterranean as well as the country immediately to the east of the Jordan. The word represents the Greek form, Παλαιστίνη, of the Hebrew (Ex. xv. 14; Isa. xiv. 29, 31; Ps. lx. 10 [A. V. 8]), although in the Old Testament is applied only to the land of the Pelishtim (), or Philistines, and hence denotes merely the coast district south of Phenicia. It was the Greeks who began to denote the inland country as well by this term; such an application, by a foreign people, of the name of the coast to the interior is no rare phenomenon. As early as Herodotus, who is followed by other classical writers, as Ptolemy and Pliny, the phrase Συρίε ἡ Παλαιστίνη denotes both the littoral and the neighboring inland region (Judea and Palestine), as well as the entire interior as far as the Arabian desert. Josephus, however, usually limits the name to the land of the Philistines. In the course of time the term "Palestine" superseded the longer "Palestinian Syria," and it is used with this connotation by Josephus and Philo, while Vespasian officially designated the country as "Palestine" on the coins which he struck after the suppression of the Jewishinsurrection in 70 C.E., implying thereby the territory of the Jews. The name is used in this sense by Christian authors beginning with Jerome, as well as by the Jewish writers (), while the Arabic "Filasṭin" is more restricted in meaning, denoting only Judea and Samaria.

Read more: JewishEncyclopedia.com - PALESTINE:
Are they a credible source?

Palestine doesn't appear in the Hebrew Bible or Christian Bible. Israel appears 2000 times in the Bible.

You = PWNED. :clap2:

Does anyone really accept the Bible as a credible source of historical information?
 
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Who or what is the JewishEncyclopedia.com ?
They wrote this;

Are they a credible source?

Palestine doesn't appear in the Hebrew Bible or Christian Bible. Israel appears 2000 times in the Bible.

You = PWNED. :clap2:

Does anyone really accept the Bible as a credible source of historical information?

The Bible, which references Israel 2000 times, was written by Europeans?

You're as dumb as the other dummy.
 
Who or what is the JewishEncyclopedia.com ?
They wrote this;

Are they a credible source?

Palestine doesn't appear in the Hebrew Bible or Christian Bible. Israel appears 2000 times in the Bible.

You = PWNED. :clap2:

Does anyone really accept the Bible as a credible source of historical information?

Harvard University does. No worries, you'll never get past high school, dummy

Harvard Semitic Museum: The Houses of Ancient Israel
In archaeological terms The Houses of Ancient Israel: Domestic, Royal, Divine focuses on the Iron Age (1200-586 B.C.E.). Iron I (1200-1000 B.C.E.) represents the premonarchical period. Iron II (1000-586 B.C.E.) was the time of kings. Uniting the tribal coalitions of Israel and Judah in the tenth century B.C.E., David and Solomon ruled over an expanding realm. After Solomon's death (c. 930 B.C.E.) Israel and Judah separated into two kingdoms.

Israel was led at times by strong kings, Omri and Ahab in the ninth century B.C.E. and Jereboam II in the eighth. The Houses of Ancient Israel § Semitic Museum
 
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Palestine doesn't appear in the Hebrew Bible or Christian Bible. Israel appears 2000 times in the Bible.

You = PWNED. :clap2:

Does anyone really accept the Bible as a credible source of historical information?

The Bible, which references Israel 2000 times, was written by Europeans?

You're as dumb as the other dummy.

Why are you asking me that question?
 
Palestine doesn't appear in the Hebrew Bible or Christian Bible. Israel appears 2000 times in the Bible.

You = PWNED. :clap2:

Does anyone really accept the Bible as a credible source of historical information?

Harvard University does. No worries, you'll never get past high school, dummy

Harvard Semitic Museum: The Houses of Ancient Israel
In archaeological terms The Houses of Ancient Israel: Domestic, Royal, Divine focuses on the Iron Age (1200-586 B.C.E.). Iron I (1200-1000 B.C.E.) represents the premonarchical period. Iron II (1000-586 B.C.E.) was the time of kings. Uniting the tribal coalitions of Israel and Judah in the tenth century B.C.E., David and Solomon ruled over an expanding realm. After Solomon's death (c. 930 B.C.E.) Israel and Judah separated into two kingdoms.

Israel was led at times by strong kings, Omri and Ahab in the ninth century B.C.E. and Jereboam II in the eighth. The Houses of Ancient Israel § Semitic Museum

What has a random off-topic quote got to do with the question?
 
Does anyone really accept the Bible as a credible source of historical information?

Harvard University does. No worries, you'll never get past high school, dummy

Harvard Semitic Museum: The Houses of Ancient Israel
In archaeological terms The Houses of Ancient Israel: Domestic, Royal, Divine focuses on the Iron Age (1200-586 B.C.E.). Iron I (1200-1000 B.C.E.) represents the premonarchical period. Iron II (1000-586 B.C.E.) was the time of kings. Uniting the tribal coalitions of Israel and Judah in the tenth century B.C.E., David and Solomon ruled over an expanding realm. After Solomon's death (c. 930 B.C.E.) Israel and Judah separated into two kingdoms.

Israel was led at times by strong kings, Omri and Ahab in the ninth century B.C.E. and Jereboam II in the eighth. The Houses of Ancient Israel § Semitic Museum

What has a random off-topic quote got to do with the question?

You're a dunce and, thus, the point that Israel existed 3000 years ago, verified by the archaeological record, went right over your pointy little head.
 
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Harvard University does. No worries, you'll never get past high school, dummy

Harvard Semitic Museum: The Houses of Ancient Israel

What has a random off-topic quote got to do with the question?

You're a dunce and, thus, the point that Israel existed 3000 years ago, verified by the archaeological record, went right over your pointy little head.

Where did the quote mention the bible?
 

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