- Dec 6, 2009
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"...In other words you don't have jack shit. Why don't you admit that you are blowing smoke out of your ass. Just post a 1948 map of Israel. It is no big thing."
Sigh... what is your major malfunction now, oh petulant, naive, delusional one?
What part of 'wherever the Jews controlled a portion of the old Mandate, there was Israel' do you not understand?
The borders of the Jewish State were ill-defined until the Armistice of 1949, at which time the Green Line borders were recognized by both Israel and the warring Arab powers, and then recognized de facto by the United Nations in its peacekeeping missions.
One can find plenty of maps of the territories controlled by the Jews on May 15, 1948 and in the fighting of the next several weeks, as the Arabs attacked the Jews.
Whatever in the world leads you to believe that any of that old shit has the slightest importance whatsoever to the Realities of Today?
Whatever deficiencies of definition which existed as of May 15, 1948 were remedied in the following weeks, and again, by Israeli force of arms, were reinforced further, in the following year, as the fighting ground to a halt and the Armistice Agreements went into effect.
Whatever rhetorical victory you think you achieve by harping on the precision (or lack thereof) in defining the land-mass claimed by Israel in the earliest going, is, in actuality, and in the Real World in which most of the rest of us live, a phyrric victory at best, and a complete failure to come to grips with the way the Real World works, at worst.
Nice song and dance.
What part of 'wherever the Jews controlled a portion of the old Mandate, there was Israel' do you not understand?
"Controlled" is a term defining occupation not possession. If Israel did not possess the land then the Palestinians had the right to declare their state inside their own international borders.
The "old mandate" did not have any territory.
and then recognized de facto by the United Nations in its peacekeeping missions.
If Israel had any land it would be defined by real borders. The armistice lines were specifically not to be political or territorial boundaries.
And besides, the armistice lines were not defined until after Palestine's declaration of independence inside its international borders.
What part of my post is incorrect?