rosends
Gold Member
- Oct 19, 2012
- 2,372
- 773
- 198
you assume I am unfamiliar with ancient hebrew grammar. trust me, i am.You are assuming that ancient Hebrew grammar was the same as the modern English translation. Trust me, it was not.
Well, if you are that familiar, then you know there was no 'royal we" in the anciient Hebrew culture or language, nor have I suggested that there was at any time.
profuse apologies -- when I read in post #40 that you wrote "Well, if the Elohim or Jahwaist writers--these are among the oldest manuscripts included in the Old Testament and are the ones who used the rhetorical "we" and "us""
I did not see that the full context was that you were doubting this. I thought you were giving it credence by saying that those writers used the rhetorical "we". Sorry for the confusion.