...if you believe that 20th century Jews have 'rights to territory in Palestine' please present proof...not more of your static and bluster---PROOF!!!!!
List your criteria for the right of a people to self-determination and sovereignty.
"A people" are the people inside a defined territory. The Palestinians are the original citizens of Palestine, a territory defined by international borders.
The people of the place are the sovereigns within their own defined territory. They do not have sovereignty outside their own territory. The French, for example, have no sovereignty in Britain.
As a Christian, you well know that the Jewish Nation is regarded as a People.
They are the original People, citizens of what was known as the region of Palestine, where their Nation - Israel - was situated.
The Jewish People were the sovereign ones from King David on, 3000 years ago with very defined "international" borders (although they were not called that at the time)
Losing sovereignty to invading conquerors does not make the Jewish Nation less of the rightful owner within its own territories, no matter how long a time has passed since they had any sovereignty over it.
Israel, is not asking to be sovereign over Gaza. Or Lebanon, or Jordan, or Egypt.
Only over its own ancient land. 20 % of what was left after 78% was given to the Arabs, and another percent ended up also with Arabs, in Gaza.
Some percent is in Arab hands in Areas A and B of Judea and Samaria, known to be ancient Jewish Homeland.
Your examples keep being confused.
The Arabs, if we follow your examples, have no sovereignty over the 20 or so Arab countries outside of their original homeland/Country/Nation/Territory. It should be given back to the indigenous people of those lands.
How are we going to accomplish that?
The more the Arab/Muslims have, the more they want.
Is it fair for the Arabs to have the 20% of the Jewish Homeland the Jews are now sovereign of, if the Arabs are not Jews, and it is not their territory?