Mudda
Silver Member
- Oct 23, 2015
- 8,015
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- #81
He's saying you're wrong. Again.One is either objective or he is not. If he is objective then he has no subjective perceptions. Let's take slavery as an example, ok? There was a time when some believed slavery was wrong and some believed it was right. They both had their "reasons" but one group had rationalized their reasons (i.e. subjective) and the other had not. We know today that slavery is wrong, that it was always wrong and will always be wrong. So you can you explain to me using this example how you believe objective proof of this subjective perception is an oxymoron? Because maybe I am not following the point you are trying to make.Objective proof of subjective perceptions is an oxymoron.