And why do RWers and other Republicans like to ignore it?
Coming in late here and I will read the whole thread but I do not give "well regulated" any weight to impact the right to arms simply because it has none.
The right to arms is not given, granted, created or established by the 2nd Amendment so it is not in any manner dependent upon the 2nd Amendment for its existence.
Inventing conditions and qualifications on the right by misconstructing the words of the Amendment into creating actions
they can not have is the real "ignoring"... Ignoring fundamental constitutional principles of conferred powers and retained rights and ignoring the clear, longstanding and boringly consistent determinations of SCOTUS on the subject:
Supreme Court, 1876: "The right . . . of "bearing arms for a lawful purpose" [for self defense exercised by two ex-slaves in this case]. . . is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed, . . ."
Supreme Court, 1886: "the right of the people to keep and bear arms is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The Second Amendment declares that it shall not be infringed, . . . "
Supreme Court, 2008: "it has always been widely understood that the Second Amendment, like the First and Fourth Amendments, codified a pre-existing right. The very text of the Second Amendment implicitly recognizes the pre-existence of the right and declares only that it “shall not be infringed.” As we said in . . . 1876 , “[t]his is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The Second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed … .”
There is only
ONE conclusion / determination permitted from reading the 2nd Amendment; the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed . . .
Can you cite any authority from the philosophical, historical or legal record that states that the term "well regulated" as it appears in the 2nd Amendment imparts any conditions, qualifications, restrictions or limits on the exercise or protection of the right to keep and bear arms of an
individual citizen, not a member of any militia?
It is my position that it is
you that is ignoring that no such evidence exists, ignoring the vast evidence to the opposite and ignoring 137 years of SCOTUS statements that extinguish the possibility of forcing "well regulated" to have any impact on the right.
I would love to read anything you can offer to dispute that though . . . I've waited over 20 years for it!
.