The second statement is a moral value judgment; consequently, others can agree or disagree only according to their own value systems. (Which, of course, may or may not be in keeping with yours.) So it seems to me that we can't answer the second question for anyone other than ourselves.
Does that not also apply to the first statement, since it is dealing with the nature and value of a man?
Indeed, is not asking a man to define slavery, understanding the connotation of the term, not asking a man to define a state that is already heavily laden with emotion, moral, and ethical connotations?