You'd like to say it was war between north and south, but in reality, it was war between Republicans and Democrats.
That's correct
All slaveholders were Democratics
Even in the south, no Republicans owned slaves
Probably true, since the Republicans didn't organize, or even run a POTUS candidate, in the South until 1868. And that year's candidate, Grant, had been a slaveholder but was not in the South, so I'll give you that.
But as to the first part, nnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnnno. Nobody holding (or trading/selling) slaves ever needed a political party. And that (both) was going on for three hundred years before "Democratics" existed, or any other political party. Which in turn means that the overwheliming majority of slave owners/traders had no political party at all. Nor did they need one.
Again, wrong.
Grant did have one slave, that he inherited from his in laws, and free him years before the Civil War.
No, it's not "wrong". Lurn to REED.
At the time when he briefly owned the slave, he was... yes, a Democrat.
Linkie?
Google it
View attachment 305410
Uh ---- nnnnnnnoooo, YOU Google it. And bring back an actual LINK to an actual SOURCE, not a fucking user-generated image.
It's not my assertion, and yet I already did Google it. Which is why I axed you for a link. Grant's wife was a Democrat. Grant's father was a Democrat. Grant himself? Not seeing any documentation. Not that it would be of any use to anything whatsoever other than trying to prop up your fatally flawed Composition Fallacy anyway but I'm just making you squirm here because I know you can't do it.