Which part wasn't close to what I wrote? The part where it says Gerald Ford used the term, or the part where it says it was used extensively in 2004? Almost nothing like what I wrote.
the part that stated Geral Ford first used the term, it came from 1890, now I'm not too fked up, but I'd say Ford wasn't around in 1890 to make that statement.
I'm not a numbers guy, but it said 1976 to me. You are that fucked up.
well you are more fked up than me, here from your wikipedia link:
"In his "On Language" column in
The New York Times,
William Safire wrote in 1988 that "flip-flop" has a long history as a synonym for "somersault". (He cited George Lorimer in 1902: "...when a fellow's turning flip-flops up among the clouds, he's naturally going to have the farmers gaping at him.") In the late 19th century, a US politician was called "the Florida flopper" by an opponent, Safire noted. The "fl" sound appearing twice is an indication of ridicule, he wrote. Citing grammarian Randolph Quirk, Safire pointed out that the doubling of the sound is also a feature in other two-word phrases used to disparage the actions or words of others, including "
mumbo jumbo", "wishy-washy", and higgledy-piggledy".
[1]
In the archives of
The New York Times, which go back to 1851, the earliest unequivocal mention of "flip-flop" as a change in someone's opinion, is in an
October 23, 1890, report of a campaign speech in New York City. John W. Goff, candidate for district attorney, said of one of his opponents: "I would like to hear Mr. Nicoll explain his great flip-flop, for three years ago, you know, as the Republican candidate for District Attorney, he bitterly denounced
Tammany as a party run by bosses and in the interest of bossism.... Nicoll, who three years ago was denouncing Tammany, is its candidate to-day."
[2]"
